Saturday, April 30, 2011

QUESTION: What does Ephesians 5:18 mean? How can one be filled with the Spirit?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
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QUESTION: What does Ephesians 5:18 mean? How can one be filled with
the Spirit?
ANSWER: In Ephesians 5:18-19 and Colossians 3:16, which are parallel
passages (with each passage explaining the other), Paul is discussing music in
the church. In the Ephesian letter, as he begins, he commands, “but be filled with
the Spirit.” In the parallel passage of the Colossian letter, as he begins, he
commands, “Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly.” He is saying the same
thing! Conclusion: We are filled with the Spirit as we let the word of Christ dwell
in us richly!

Friday, April 29, 2011

QUESTION: Some say that the one hundred and twenty disciples (Acts 1:15) were baptized in the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost. Is this true?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Some say that the one hundred and twenty disciples (Acts
1:15) were baptized in the Holy Spirit on the day of Pentecost. Is this true?
ANSWER: No! It is not true. Notice in the latter part of the first chapter of Acts
that the discussion involves the apostles, specifically about a replacement for
Judas Iscariot. In verse twenty-six we read, “and the lot fell upon Matthias; and
he was numbered with the eleven apostles.” In chapter two, verse one, Luke
says, “and when the day of Pentecost was fully come “they” were all in one
accord in one place; “they” were sitting in the house (vs.2) and cloven tongues
like as of fire sat upon each of “them.” Who are the “they” and the “them” in these
verses? These words refer directly to the eleven plus Matthias in the last verse of
Chapter one! Can we be sure? Yes! In chapter 1:2-8, to whom was the promise
of baptism Clearly, in these verses, commandment (vs.2, 5) and promise (vs.4, 5, 8) was
made to the apostles only! The same is true in John 14:16-17,26; John 15:26;
and John 16:7,13. In each instance, the Holy Ghost in baptismal measure was
promised only to the apostles! Note also, in verse fourteen, that after the baptism
of the Holy Ghost (chapter 2:1-4), Peter stood up with the eleven (not the
hundred and twenty) and preached. Those who put the hundred and twenty
disciples into the commandment, promise, baptism of the Holy Ghost, and
preaching in these chapters, do so without scriptural basis. They have wrested
God’s Word to support their own doctrines!in the Holy Ghost made? Was it to the hundred and twenty? No!

Thursday, April 28, 2011

QUESTION: Does Mark 16:17-20 teach that gifts of the Holy Spirit are meant for us today?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does Mark 16:17-20 teach that gifts of the Holy Spirit are
meant for us today?
ANSWER: No! Note carefully in verse seventeen that the gifts of the Holy Spirit
were to be done in the name of (by the authority of) Christ. By His authority, the
gifts were to be used to confirm the word (verse twenty). Also, by His authority,
the gifts were to be done away upon confirmation of that word or “when that
which is perfect (complete/mature) is come” (I Corinthians 13:8-11). The “perfect”
refers to the complete/perfect law of liberty (James 1:25). Spiritual gifts in their
fullness, then, were authorized only during the period between the baptism of the
Holy Spirit in Acts 2:1-4 and the completion of the perfect law of liberty, i.e., the
New Testament! Since the New Testament has already been confirmed with
“signs” (once confirmed, always confirmed), it is clear that there is no reason for
“gifts” today and, further, that those who pretend to practice “gifts” today are
violating God’s Word, because they do not have the authority of Christ for their
practices!

Wednesday, April 27, 2011

QUESTION: Does I Corinthians 12:7 (all men) include Christians today?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does I Corinthians 12:7 (all men) include Christians today?
ANSWER: No! “Every man” refers to those Christians under consideration
during the time when “gifts” were employed. Specifically, Paul is writing to the
Corinthian Christians who were misusing the “gifts” (Please read Chapters 12,
13, and 14). To apply this to Christians today would be to negate the force of I
Corinthians 13.

Tuesday, April 26, 2011

Bible Questions & Answers If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address. When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog. I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days. Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QUESTION: The purpose of Holy Spirit baptism is to give special abilities. You explained that the Holy Spirit indwells only through the word. Since you have the Holy Spirit dwelling in you, but you have no special ability, how is it that you can teach the Bible? Where did you get the ability? ANSWER: Certainly, none (including myself) are endowed miraculously today. Those who are able to teach the Bible can do so only after having been obedient to such passages as shown in the response immediately above. The reason for so many different denominations and false doctrines today is that some who claim to be ministers of God’s word have not done been obedient to these scriptures, but rather they have immersed themselves in their own imaginations (claiming to be so led by the Holy Spirit) and/or man-made denominational by-laws and directives (Matthew 15:9). Many of these so-called Spirit-led folks believe and practice different, contradictory things. Why? Is the Holy Spirit divided? Clearly, where there is contradiction, truth is an impossibility! Which of these folks is telling the truth? Which one is really being led by the Holy Spirit? Which one can we trust? Evidently, we cannot trust in what man says (Matthew 15:9); neither can we trust in what we might imagine to be Holy Spirit directives (Isaiah 55:8; Jeremiah 10:23). We must trust only in His words, for “they are spirit and they are life” (John 6:63). They, and they alone, will judge us in that day (John 12:48)!

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++


Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++


QUESTION: The purpose of Holy Spirit baptism is to give special abilities.
You explained that the Holy Spirit indwells only through the word. Since
you have the Holy Spirit dwelling in you, but you have no special ability,
how is it that you can teach the Bible? Where did you get the ability?
ANSWER: Certainly, none (including myself) are endowed miraculously today.
Those who are able to teach the Bible can do so only after having been obedient
to such passages as shown in the response immediately above.
The reason for so many different denominations and false doctrines today is that
some who claim to be ministers of God’s word have not done been obedient to
these scriptures, but rather they have immersed themselves in their own
imaginations (claiming to be so led by the Holy Spirit) and/or man-made
denominational by-laws and directives (Matthew 15:9). Many of these so-called
Spirit-led folks believe and practice different, contradictory things. Why? Is the
Holy Spirit divided? Clearly, where there is contradiction, truth is an impossibility!
Which of these folks is telling the truth? Which one is really being led by the Holy
Spirit? Which one can we trust? Evidently, we cannot trust in what man says
(Matthew 15:9); neither can we trust in what we might imagine to be Holy Spirit
directives (Isaiah 55:8; Jeremiah 10:23). We must trust only in His words, for
“they are spirit and they are life” (John 6:63). They, and they alone, will judge us
in that day (John 12:48)!

ANSWER: Certainly, none (including myself) are endowed miraculously today.
Those who are able to teach the Bible can do so only after having been obedient
to such passages as shown in the response immediately above.
The reason for so many different denominations and false doctrines today is that
some who claim to be ministers of God’s word have not done been obedient to
these scriptures, but rather they have immersed themselves in their own
imaginations (claiming to be so led by the Holy Spirit) and/or man-made
denominational by-laws and directives (Matthew 15:9). Many of these so-called
Spirit-led folks believe and practice different, contradictory things. Why? Is the
Holy Spirit divided? Clearly, where there is contradiction, truth is an impossibility!
Which of these folks is telling the truth? Which one is really being led by the Holy
Spirit? Which one can we trust? Evidently, we cannot trust in what man says
(Matthew 15:9); neither can we trust in what we might imagine to be Holy Spirit
directives (Isaiah 55:8; Jeremiah 10:23). We must trust only in His words, for
“they are spirit and they are life” (John 6:63). They, and they alone, will judge us
in that day (John 12:48)!

Monday, April 25, 2011

QUESTION: Since some in the church today are still babes, are not gifts still necessary for maturation?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Since some in the church today are still babes, are not gifts
still necessary for maturation?
ANSWER: No! Christians today become mature by partaking of the meat of the
word of righteousness (Hebrews 5:11-14; I Peter 2:2).
STATEMENT: I find it very difficult to agree that there was a time when the truth
was only in part and that gifts ended when it (the New Testament) was
completed. The word of God has always been perfect, since God is perfect.
RESPONSE: Clearly, the New Testament was not given in it’s totality on the day
of Pentecost, but rather it was given and written over a period of years during the
first century. Once it was completed, it became the perfect (complete) law of
liberty (James 1:25). Upon the New Testament being totally given, confirmed and
written, the need for gifts (confirmation of the word) no longer existed! Certainly
we agree that God is perfect in all that He is and does. We also agree that as
God, through the Holy Spirit, guided (led; indicative of progression) the apostles
into all truth, it was (and is) perfect (without flaw). In 1 Corinthians thirteen,
however, the word “perfect” does not denote “sinlessness” or “without fault” It
simply means “complete” or “mature.” In verses eight through eleven, this word
(perfect/complete) is contrasted with that which is in “part;” that which is to be
done away. What was it that was known in part (vs.9)? When would the part be
done away (vs.10)? According to verse ten, the part would be done away when
the complete (perfect) was come! With the coming of the “complete” law of
liberty, Christians would no longer have to know in part, because they would now
have all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him
who hath called us to glory and virtue (II Peter 1:3), through all scripture which
would make the man of God complete, furnished unto every good work (II
Timothy 3:16-17). It cannot be successfully denied that the gifts were indicative
of that which was in part and, further, that which represented childhood or
spiritual immaturity/incompleteness (I Corinthians 13:8-11). To the contrary,
however, some today, who falsely claim the ability to perform miracles (gifts),
represent these as being indicative of spiritual maturity. They do so in opposition
to God’s Word and Will!
STATEMENT: We still need the Holy Spirit to teach us today in the same way
He taught the apostles.
RESPONSE: This allegation is not biblically based. The apostles were guided
into all truth. All truth has been recorded by inspired men once for all (Jude 3). It
is only through this truth that we become complete/mature (II Timothy 3:15), and
only through it can we be saved (James 1:21). If the above allegation was true
(with the Holy Spirit teaching and guiding us as He did the apostles) there would
be no need for Christians to study the Bible today. In fact, what need of the Bible
would we have? That this is clearly false can be seen in many scriptures, e.g., II
Timothy 2:2; II Timothy 2:15; Hebrews 5:12-14; et al.

Sunday, April 24, 2011

QUESTION: For what purpose did the apostles impart gifts to others?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: For what purpose did the apostles impart gifts to others?
ANSWER: To confirm the word (Mark 16:20; Acts 14:3). The word had not yet
come in its fullness. It was necessary, in order for the gospel to be proclaimed in
all the world (Colossians 1:6) to every creature (Colossians 1:23), that others
beside the apostles be involved in it’s proclamation! We see an example of this in
Acts the eighth chapter when the disciples were scattered abroad and went
everywhere preaching the word. Philip at that time went down to Samaria and
preached Christ unto them, and the people gave heed unto those things which
he spake, hearing and seeing the miracles which he did (vss. 5-6)!
As an aside, it is also interesting to note that since Philip was not an apostle he
could not impart gifts that he performed to the Samaritans. It was necessary that
Peter and John be sent to do so (vss.14-17). It is clear then that only the apostles
had this ability, which should raise some questions as follows: Why did God not
send the Holy Spirit directly to the Samaritans, as some claim is sent to them
today? What happened when the last apostle died, if only they could impart
spiritual gifts? What happened when the last person died upon whom an apostle
had laid his hands? The answers are obvious! Since the purposes for Holy Spirit
baptism were totally fulfilled and the apostles no longer live, it is quite evident
that there can be no gifts today. These means of conveyance to man no longer
exists by the will of God! Neither is there a reason for gifts today, since the word
has already been confirmed!

Friday, April 22, 2011

QUESTION: Did Paul see the Lord only in a vision?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Did Paul see the Lord only in a vision?
ANSWER: The details surrounding our Lord’s appearance to Paul are not
specified. However, that He was seen of Paul cannot be denied: Acts 9:17, Jesus
“appeared” unto him; Acts 26:16, Jesus “appeared” and was to “appear;” I
Corinthians 9:1 & 15:8, Paul said he had “seen” the Lord. To deny that “seeing”
the resurrected Christ was a requirement for being an apostle is, with bias, to
ignore the plain teaching of Acts 1:22. Those who reject this verse are usually
falsely holding to the misconception of modern apostles and “gift” usage today.

Thursday, April 21, 2011

Today's hUMOR

"Priceless Grandparent Stories - Part 1"

1. After putting her grandchildren to bed, a grandmother changed into old slacks and a droopy blouse and proceeded to wash her hair. As she heard the children getting more and more rambunctious, her patience grew thin. At last she threw a towel around her head and stormed into their room, putting them back to bed with stern warnings. As she left the room, she heard the three-year-old say with a trembling voice, "Who was THAT?"

2. A mother was telling her little girl what her own childhood was like: "We used to skate outside on a pond. I had a swing made from a tire; it hung from a tree in our front yard. We rode our pony. We picked wild raspberries in the woods."
The little girl was wide-eyed, taking this in. At last she said, "I sure wish I'd gotten to know you sooner!"

3. My grandson was visiting one day when he asked, "Grandma, do you know how you and God are alike?"! I mentally polished my halo while I asked, "No, how are we alike?" "You're both old," he replied.

4. A little girl was diligently pounding away on her father's word processor. She told him she was writing a story. "What's it about?" he asked. "I don't know," she replied. "I can't read."

5. I didn't know if my granddaughter had learned her colors yet, so I decided to test her. I would point out something and ask what color it was. She would tell me, and always she was correct. But it was fun for me, so I continued. At last she headed for the door, saying sagely, "Grandma, I think you should try to figure out some of these yourself!"


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CleanPun

"When the smog lifts in Los Angeles, U.C.L.A."

&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&&^&^^^^
One Liner

"Money can't buy happiness, but it can buy ice cream, and that's close enough."


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"Someone Who Understands"
Featured Illustration items are well suited for introducing or illuminating a point in a sermon, speech, or devotional. Funny, moving, or perhaps even graphic, the point of them is the point you make with them.

Bob Weber, past president of Kiwanis International, told this story. He had spoken to a club in a small town and was spending the night with a farmer on the outskirts of the community. He had just relaxed on the front porch when a newsboy delivered the evening paper. The boy noted the sign Puppies for Sale. The boy got off his bike and said to the farmer, "How much do you want for the pups, mister?"

"Twenty-five dollars, son."

The boy's face dropped. "Well, sir, could I at least see them anyway?"

The farmer whistled, and in a moment the mother dog came bounding around the corner of the house tagged by four of the cute puppies, wagging their tails and yipping happily. At last, another pup came straggling around the house, dragging one hind leg.

"What's the matter with that puppy, mister?" the boy asked.

"Well, Son, that puppy is crippled. We took her to the vet and the doctor took an X ray. The pup doesn't have a hip joint and that leg will never be right."

To the amazement of both men, the boy dropped the bike, reached for his collection bag and took out a fifty-cent piece. "Please, mister," the boy pleaded, "I want to buy that pup. I'll pay you fifty cents every week until the twenty-five dollars is paid. Honest I will, mister."

The farmer replied, "But, Son, you don't seem to understand. That pup will never, never be able to run or jump. That pup is going to be a cripple forever. Why in the world would you want such a useless pup as that?"

The boy paused for a moment, then reached down and pulled up his pant leg, exposing that all too familiar iron brace and leather knee-strap holding a poor twisted leg. The boy answered, "Mister, that pup is going to need someone who understands him to help him in life!"

QUESTION: Can one be qualified to be an apostle today?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Can one be qualified to be an apostle today?
ANSWER: No! To be qualified to be an apostle, one must be an eyewitness of
the resurrected Christ (Acts 1:22) as were the twelve (Acts 1:21) and the apostle
Paul (Acts 26:13-18). None living today have seen the resurrected Christ!
Therefore, none today can be qualified to be an apostle! We can be sure that
those who claim apostleship today do not represent the church of the New
Testament!

Wednesday, April 20, 2011

question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
QUESTION: Do you believe that the Holy Spirit is of no use today?
ANSWER: The Holy Spirit is God and has revealed Himself to us through the
written Word. To believe that the Holy Spirit is of no use would be to reject the
very gospel by which we are saved. However, our understanding of the Holy
Spirit cannot be based upon the feelings, doctrines and traditions of men! We
must believe and accept the Holy Spirit according to the gospel He has given! To
do otherwise, would be to deny Him in disbelief!

Tuesday, April 19, 2011

QUESTION: Were not the people in Acts 19:1-7 baptized in the Holy Spirit?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
QUESTION: Were not the people in Acts 19:1-7 baptized in the Holy Spirit?
ANSWER: No! They received the “gifts” of speaking in foreign languages and
prophecy through the laying on of Paul’s hands (vs.6).

Monday, April 18, 2011

Bible Questions & Answers If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address. When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog. I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days. Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QUESTION: Does not Jesus tell Nicodemus (and us) that he needed to be baptized in the Holy Spirit (John 3:5)? ANSWER: No! Jesus is simply saying that baptism in water is through the agency (direction) of the Holy Spirit. Paul says the same thing in I Corinthians 12:13, “for by one Spirit (by His direction) are we all baptized into one body.” The command to be immersed in water comes only through His Word! That Jesus is not telling Nicodemus to be baptized in the Holy Spirit is evidenced by the fact that, at this time, the Holy Spirit had not yet been given (John 7:39). As well, the Holy Spirit was to come only as a “promise” (John 14:16-17; John 14:26; John 15:26; John 16:7; John 16:13; Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4). Neither the apostles, nor any, were ever “commanded” to be baptized in the Holy Spirit. The only baptism of commandment is water baptism for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38).

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does not Jesus tell Nicodemus (and us) that he needed to be
baptized in the Holy Spirit (John 3:5)?
ANSWER: No! Jesus is simply saying that baptism in water is through the
agency (direction) of the Holy Spirit. Paul says the same thing in I Corinthians
12:13, “for by one Spirit (by His direction) are we all baptized into one body.” The
command to be immersed in water comes only through His Word! That Jesus is
not telling Nicodemus to be baptized in the Holy Spirit is evidenced by the fact
that, at this time, the Holy Spirit had not yet been given (John 7:39). As well, the
Holy Spirit was to come only as a “promise” (John 14:16-17; John 14:26; John
15:26; John 16:7; John 16:13; Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4). Neither the apostles, nor
any, were ever “commanded” to be baptized in the Holy Spirit. The only baptism
of commandment is water baptism for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38).

ANSWER: No! Jesus is simply saying that baptism in water is through the
agency (direction) of the Holy Spirit. Paul says the same thing in I Corinthians
12:13, “for by one Spirit (by His direction) are we all baptized into one body.” The
command to be immersed in water comes only through His Word! That Jesus is
not telling Nicodemus to be baptized in the Holy Spirit is evidenced by the fact
that, at this time, the Holy Spirit had not yet been given (John 7:39). As well, the
Holy Spirit was to come only as a “promise” (John 14:16-17; John 14:26; John
15:26; John 16:7; John 16:13; Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4). Neither the apostles, nor
any, were ever “commanded” to be baptized in the Holy Spirit. The only baptism
of commandment is water baptism for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38).

Sunday, April 17, 2011

QUESTION: What is baptism of the Holy Spirit and the baptism of fire as expressed in Matthew 3:11?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What is baptism of the Holy Spirit and the baptism of fire as
expressed in Matthew 3:11?
ANSWER: Baptism of the Holy Spirit has been explained above. The baptism of
fire is explained quite clearly in Matthew 3:12. In the King James version of the
Bible, the eleventh verse ends in this way, “and with fire:” Notice that the many
scholarly English translators involved placed a colon ( : ) after the word “fire.” In
English grammar, that which follows a colon is an explanation of that which
appears before the colon. Therefore, verse twelve explains the phrase, “and with
fire.” That verse twelve (as well as the preceding verse, ten) has reference to the
unquenchable fire of hell can not successfully be denied! Also proven by verse
twelve is the fact that the word “you” does not refer to everyone, but, rather, is
used in the sense that there are those among “you” who will be baptized with the
Holy Ghost, and with fire. Obviously, not all people would be cast into hell
(immersed in fire)! Similarly, not all people would be immersed in the Holy Spirit.
To apply Matthew 3:11-12 to all people, would force the conclusion that none will
be saved.

Saturday, April 16, 2011

QUESTION: Does not Joel 2:28 teach that the Holy Spirit would be poured out upon all flesh? Why do you restrict this to the apostles and the household of Cornelius?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does not Joel 2:28 teach that the Holy Spirit would be poured
out upon all flesh? Why do you restrict this to the apostles and the
household of Cornelius?
ANSWER: The outpouring of the Holy Spirit was indeed upon all flesh, i.e., both
the Jews and the Gentiles. However, to assume that “all flesh” refers to “all men”
is to assume too much! If such were the case, one would necessarily and
logically have to agree that the Holy Spirit was also poured out even upon
sinners! The outpouring of the Holy Spirit as prophesied in Joel 2:28 is not
restricted only to the apostles and the househoaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaald of Cornelius! This, however,
does not mean that others were baptized in the Holy Spirit! They were not (See
above answers)! It simply means that miraculous gifts were poured out upon
others, not through Holy Spirit baptism, but through the laying on of the apostle’s
hands.

Friday, April 15, 2011

QUESTION: What is the “gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38)?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What is the “gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38)?
ANSWER: Acts 3:19 is a parallel passage to Acts 2:38. They teach the same
thing and explain each other!
Acts 2:38: “Repent, and be baptized for the remission of sins, and ye shall
receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”
Acts 3:19: “Repent, and be converted that your sins may be blotted out, when
the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord.
The “gift of the Holy Spirit” or “the refreshing that comes from the presence of the
Lord” is the many blessings each Christian derives from the Holy Spirit according
to His will. In the first century, the many blessings (times of refreshing) from the
Holy Spirit would have included miraculous gifts. Today, the many blessings
(times of refreshing) from the Holy Spirit do not include miraculous gifts, because
their purpose has ceased to exist. (See preceding questions).

Thursday, April 14, 2011

QUESTION: What is the difference between the words “Ghost” and “Spirit”?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What is the difference between the words “Ghost” and
“Spirit”?
ANSWER: There is no scriptural difference between these two words. At the
time of the King James translation, the word “Ghost” was used in the same way
the word “Spirit” is used today. However, the word “Ghost” has been foolishly and
childishly narrowed in meaning through the years to represent an imaginary
disembodied being whose purpose it is to travel about frightening people.

Wednesday, April 13, 2011

QUESTION: If the gifts have passed away, what about I Corinthians 12, 13, & 14?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If the gifts have passed away, what about I Corinthians 12, 13,
& 14?
ANSWER: I Corinthians 12, 13, & 14 were written to the church at Corinth to
help them overcome problems of division and disorderliness in worship services
that the misuse of spiritual gifts had caused. Because the apostle dealt with
these problems at that time, it in no way suggests that spiritual gifts continue
today. To infer so, is to ignore the clear teaching of I Corinthians 13:8-13 and
Ephesians 4:8-14, as discussed above.
The so-called “gifts” of today cannot begin to compare with those found in the
Bible. Those of today are most often nothing more than pretentious attempts to
prove one’s self-righteousness before men. Neither they nor their “gifts” are of
God!

Tuesday, April 12, 2011

QUESTION: Are men baptized in the Holy Spirit today? Do men receive the “gifts” of the Holy Spirit today? How does He work in people today?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Are men baptized in the Holy Spirit today? Do men receive the
“gifts” of the Holy Spirit today? How does He work in people today?
ANSWER: It is clear from your correspondence that you believe the church of
Christ, as you perceive it, is not the church of the Bible. We make this judgment
based on the unscriptural use of the name “New Apostolic Church”
(Romans16:16) in your letter, which indicates an erroneous acceptance of the
idea that both the baptism of the Holy Spirit and the associated gifts are available
for men today. Please carefully consider the following:
The gifts of the Holy Spirit were imparted to man in only one of two ways: through
baptism of the Holy Spirit, of which there are only two recorded cases in the Bible
(Acts 2:1-4: Acts 10 & 11); and through the laying on of the apostles’ hands (Acts
8:14-18), which is often confused by some with the baptism of the Holy Spirit. We
must be careful not to do this! The baptism of the twelve apostles, in the first
case, was the fulfillment off Christ’s promise that He would send them the Holy
Spirit (John 14:16; John 15:26; John 16:7). The Holy Spirit was sent (Acts 2:1-4)
to teach the apostles all things, to bring all things to their remembrance (John
14:26), and to guide them into all truth (John 16:13). As a result, men inspired of
God recorded all truth (the Bible) one time, for all time (II Peter 1:3-11; II Timothy
3:16). Since we now have all truth, there is clearly no additional truth to be
delivered. Therefore, this reason for the baptism of the Holy Spirit no longer
exists!
After the falling of the Holy Spirit on the household of Cornelius, in the second
case, God completed the fulfillment of the promise that He had made to Abraham
in Genesis 12:3; “and in thee and thy seed shall all families of the earth be
blessed.” The Gentiles were to be blessed by God following this second case of
Holy Spirit baptism (Acts 11:14; Acts 10:48) just as He blessed the Jews
following the first case of Holy Spirit baptism. This means that God would at this
time grant salvation through Christ to the Gentiles (Acts 11:18), just as He had
done to the Jews on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:37-47). Since Cornelius and his
household were baptized in water for the remission of sins (Acts10:47-48; Acts
2:38) following Holy Spirit baptism, it is clear that the reason for Holy Spirit
baptism was not to save or wash away sin! What then was the reason? The Bible
is clear! In Acts 10 & 11; Acts 15:7-9, we find that this household was baptized in
the Holy Spirit only as a witness to the Jews that God had also granted salvation
in Christ to the Gentiles. Since the promise of God was fulfilled (filled full) at this
time, this reason for Holy Spirit baptism also ceased to exist.
All purposes for Holy Spirit baptism, then, were fulfilled. Therefore, there is no
reason for it today. To support this conclusion further, we note that Paul wrote in
63/65AD that, at that time, there was only one baptism (Ephesians 4:5). At the
same time (65AD), Peter writes and tells us that water “baptism doth also now save us” (I Peter 3:20-21). In 65AD then, there was only one baptism and this
one baptism was water baptism! This being true, we can only conclude that this
one baptism is the baptism of the great commission, which is “unto the end of the
world” (Matthew 28:18-20). There is no room for Holy Spirit baptism today! If
there is only one, there cannot be two!
As stated above, spiritual gifts were given in one of two ways in the New
Testament, either through the baptism of the Holy Spirit or through the laying on
of the apostles’ hands. It has been shown above that Holy Spirit baptism does
not exist today, but what about the laying on of the apostles’ hands? The
question that needs to be answered is this: Can one be qualified to be an apostle
today? No! To be qualified to be an apostle, one must be an eyewitness of the
resurrected Christ (Acts 1:22) as were the twelve (Acts 1:21) and the apostle
Paul (Acts 26:13-18). None living today have seen the resurrected Christ!
Therefore, none today can be qualified to be an apostle. Those who claim to be
apostles today do so without biblical support (Revelation 2:2). Since there is no
Holy Spirit baptism today and since the last apostle died about 2000 years ago, it
is evident that spiritual gifts could last only as long as the last person was alive
upon whom an apostle had laid his hands. In Ephesians 4:7-14; I Corinthians
13:8-13, we find that spiritual gifts were for the church in it’s infancy. They were
called childish things that would be put away when the church became mature.
Some would teach falsely that the mature, or more spiritual, church practices the
use of gifts today. This is in direct opposition to what Paul says in verse eleven,
“When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child: but when I
became a man (mature), I put away childish things”; speaking of the miraculous
gifts that, in verse eight, “shall vanish away” and, in verse nine, “shall be done
away.”
The only way the church could become complete (mature) was through all
scripture (II Timothy 3:16-17), the complete (perfect) law of liberty (James 1:25).
In the years following the establishment of the church, the will of God had not yet
been fully revealed, written and confirmed by miracles. It was yet in part! The
sole purpose of miracles was to confirm the newly revealed word (John 20:30-
31). Once all scripture was given by inspiration of God, confirmed and written, it
became the complete (perfect) law of liberty, able to “make the man of God
perfect (complete), throughly furnished unto every good work” (II Timothy 3:17).
Since we now have “that which is perfect” (I Corinthians 13:10); that is, the
complete, mature, confirmed word of God, in which are “all things that pertain
unto life and godliness,” and by which we can become complete (mature) as
Christians, there remains no need for gifts to day. They have served the purpose
for which they were intended!
Are miraculous gifts evident today? When one, without bias, compares what men
claim to do today with the miracles performed in the Bible, it will clearly be seen
that “biblical” gifts are not evident today! Where is the man today who speaks a
foreign language he has not studied or learned? Where are those today who
raise the dead? Where are the dead whom they have raised? Why do those who claim gifts today die? Why do they go to hospitals for treatment? Why do their
families get sick and die? Where are those who walk upon water? Surely, biblical
miracles are not being performed today!
Those who claim baptism of the Holy Spirit and miraculous gifts today obviously
do so without biblical support. They are pretenders and false claimants of
something that does not exist! Not only this, but they, knowingly or unknowingly,
arrogantly place themselves on an equality with the apostles! God forbid that we
should be found guilty of such!
The Holy Spirit does not work in our lives today separate and apart from the
Word of God! He operates only through the instrument of the Word, which is His
sword (Ephesians 6:17). Through the Word, He saves us (Titus 3:5), bears
witness with our spirits that we are the children of God (Romans 8:26), witnesses
to us (Hebrews 10:15), strengthens us (Ephesians 3:16), sanctifies us (II
Thessalonians 2:13), and He will raise us up in the last day (Romans 8:11) at the
direction of Jesus Christ (John 5:28-29). He also makes intercession for us
before the throne of God (Romans 8:26-27). Since all of this occurs through the
Word of God, what need is there for a “working” apart from it? Absolutely none!

Monday, April 11, 2011

QUESTION: What was the reason and what was really happening on the Cross, when Jesus said, My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?”

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What was the reason and what was really happening on the
Cross, when Jesus said, My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?”
ANSWER: The phrase was a quote from the book of Psalms 22:1 indicative of
one that was in deep suffering. The citing of this passage showed that He alone
bore our sins to that cross (Isaiah 53:4-5) and that indeed what He was
undergoing was the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy. Certainly, it teaches
us also the hatred that our Father has for sin; in that, while with the sins of the
world upon His Son, apparently, God temporarily, turned away, rejecting Him in
that moment, because of the great love that He had for you and me (John 3:16).
Did Jesus have foreknowledge of the events of that day? Of course He did (Luke
18:31-34), but the human side of our Lord could not contain and uttered in much
agony the phrase. Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani!

Sunday, April 10, 2011

QUESTION: Some people say they have seen Jesus Christ. How is this possible if Jesus is a spirit?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Some people say they have seen Jesus Christ. How is this
possible if Jesus is a spirit?
ANSWER: Those today who say they have literally seen Jesus Christ are either
lying or suffering from mental instability!
Peter says in I Peter 1:8 that we “see Him not,” and though we “see Him not” we
can still love and believe in Him. As a result, we can then “rejoice with joy
unspeakable and full of glory.” Christ says of His followers in John 20:29,
“blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.”
The apostle John tells us in I John 3:2 that we “know” when Christ appears we
shall be like Him. He also says that “it doth not yet appear what we shall be.”
Since the Bible says that we don’t yet know what we shall be like, it follows then
that we have not yet seen Christ; nor know what He is like! If we now knew what
He was like, that is, if we had seen Him, then we would already know what we
will be like! The fact that “it doth not yet appear what we shall be” is evidence of
the fact that none today have seen Him!
The answer to the question is summed up in Paul’s statement of II Corinthians
5:7 that Christians (all Christians) “walk by faith and not by sight!” If one today
had really seen Jesus then he or she would be walking by sight and not by faith,
thereby negating and contradicting how God said Christians are to walk!
Those who claim that God literally appeared to them or that God talked directly to
them do so in direct opposition to His Word. If these cannot be shown the error in
which they engage, they need to be avoided as false teachers who “serve not our Lord Jesus Christ, but their own belly; and by good words and fair speeches
deceive the heart of the simple” (Romans 16:17-18).

Saturday, April 9, 2011

QUESTION: Would you please explain Matthew 27:46-47?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
QUESTION: Would you please explain Matthew 27:46-47?
ANSWER: In the first part of verse forty-six, Jesus from the cross, ‘cried with a
loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani.”’ The second part of the verse tells
the meaning of the first part, i.e., Jesus had said, “My God, my God, why hast
thou forsaken me?” Verse forty-eight says that those who stood nearby
misunderstood, thinking that Jesus was calling for Elias!
There are many opinions as to what Jesus meant when He said, “My God, my
God, why hast thou forsaken me?” Clearly, it is the case that Jesus, as Deity,
knew what was before Him as He went to Calvary (John 12:27). And as Deity, He
also knew that whatever He would have to face that is Father would never totally
forsake Him (John 16:32). It follows and appears then that, in keeping with the
divine plan; in order for Jesus to experience the fullness of suffering and the total
weight of the sins of mankind, that Deity (Father, Son, and Holy Ghost) withheld
the slightest of support and allowed the human side of Jesus to woefully recite
the words from Psalms 22:1, “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?”++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Friday, April 8, 2011

QUESTION: Would you please explain Matthew 27:46-47?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Would you please explain Matthew 27:46-47?
ANSWER: In the first part of verse forty-six, Jesus from the cross, ‘cried with a
loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani.”’ The second part of the verse tells
the meaning of the first part, i.e., Jesus had said, “My God, my God, why hast
thou forsaken me?” Verse forty-eight says that those who stood nearby
misunderstood, thinking that Jesus was calling for Elias!
There are many opinions as to what Jesus meant when He said, “My God, my
God, why hast thou forsaken me?” Clearly, it is the case that Jesus, as Deity,
knew what was before Him as He went to Calvary (John 12:27). And as Deity, He
also knew that whatever He would have to face that is Father would never totally
forsake Him (John 16:32). It follows and appears then that, in keeping with the
divine plan; in order for Jesus to experience the fullness of suffering and the total
weight of the sins of mankind, that Deity (Father, Son, and Holy Ghost) withheld
the slightest of support and allowed the human side of Jesus to woefully recite
the words from Psalms 22:1, “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?”

Thursday, April 7, 2011

QUESTION: Did Jesus become a sinner when He died on the cross for our sins?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
QUESTION: Did Jesus become a sinner when He died on the cross for our
sins?
ANSWER: No! II Corinthians 5:21 says that Christ “knew no sin.” It was because
of this that He could be “made to be sin for us.” This passage does not teach that
He became a sinner or even that He literally became sin. It is teaching that He
suffered as though He were the sinner; that He only, because of His sinlessness,
could do such and be the one perfect sacrifice (sin-offering) whereby “we might be made the righteousness of God in Him!” Those who teach that Christ became
a sinner at the cross are in error!

Wednesday, April 6, 2011

QUESTION: Did Christ resurrect in body? If yes, explain I Peter 3:18 and I Corinthians 15:42-44, 50.

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Truth for the World
Bible Question and Answer Booklet
Compiled by David Amos for Truth for the World 09/04/98
This booklet may be re-printed and freely distributed. However, the contents of this booklet may not be altered in any way.
15
QUESTION: Did Christ resurrect in body? If yes, explain I Peter 3:18 and I
Corinthians 15:42-44, 50.
ANSWER: Yes! Christ was bodily resurrected (Matthew 28:6; Luke 24:36-43;
John 20:24-29), as we shall be (John 5:28-29; II Corinthians 5:1-10).
I Peter 3:18 simply teaches that Christ was quickened (made alive/resurrected)
through the power and agency of the Holy Spirit, the same power by which our
bodies shall one day be resurrected (Romans 8:11)!
I Corinthians 15:42-44 emphasizes the fact that the bodies that will come forth
from the grave in the general resurrection (all are to be raised at the same time)
will be incorruptible, unlike our present corruptible bodies. Being different from
our present “natural” bodies, they are referred to in verse forty-four as “spiritual
bodies,” not as “spirits without bodies” (II Corinthians 5:2-3)! The flesh of which
the spiritual (heavenly/celestial-vs.40) body is to be made will be unlike anything
that now exists on earth. It will not be as the flesh of present man; as beasts,
fishes, or birds (I Corinthians 15:35-39), but, rather, God will provide a fleshly
body that pleases Him (vs.38). These facts are also evidenced and implied in
verse fifty where we are told that our present flesh and blood bodies, which are
corruptible, cannot enter the kingdom of heaven (which is incorruptible).
Therefore, we will be clothed (II Corinthians 5:1-3) in the resurrection with fleshly,
incorruptible, spiritual bodies unlike our present fleshly, corruptible, natural
bodies. Note very carefully what Paul is saying in verse fifty. He does not say that
incorruptible “flesh and bones” cannot enter heaven! He is saying that corruptible
“flesh and blood” cannot enter heaven! Note also in Luke 24:39 that Jesus’
resurrected body consisted of “flesh and bones.” That His resurrected body had
been “changed” is further seen by the placing of Thomas’ fingers “into the print of
the nails” and the thrusting of his hand “into His side,” indicating an absence of
blood as we know it! This is the incorruptible, glorious, “flesh and bones” body
that the disciples saw taken up into heaven and the same incorruptible, glorious,
“flesh and bones” body that all shall see returning from heaven one day (Acts
1:9-11; Revelation 1:7). In that great day He has promised to ‘change our vile
(corruptible) bodies, that they may be fashioned like unto His glorious
(resurrected) body, . . .’ (Philippians 3:21) and then “we shall be like Him” (I John
4:2)! Note, as well, that the corruptible bodies of those who are alive when the
resurrection occurs will also be “changed” into incorruptible bodies (spiritual
bodies) fit for an eternity in heaven (I Corinthians 15:51-52)!

Tuesday, April 5, 2011

QUESTION: Did Christ resurrect in body? If yes, explain I Peter 3:18 and I Corinthians 15:42-44, 50.

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Did Christ resurrect in body? If yes, explain I Peter 3:18 and I
Corinthians 15:42-44, 50.
ANSWER: Yes! Christ was bodily resurrected (Matthew 28:6; Luke 24:36-43;
John 20:24-29), as we shall be (John 5:28-29; II Corinthians 5:1-10).
I Peter 3:18 simply teaches that Christ was quickened (made alive/resurrected)
through the power and agency of the Holy Spirit, the same power by which our
bodies shall one day be resurrected (Romans 8:11)!
I Corinthians 15:42-44 emphasizes the fact that the bodies that will come forth
from the grave in the general resurrection (all are to be raised at the same time)
will be incorruptible, unlike our present corruptible bodies. Being different from
our present “natural” bodies, they are referred to in verse forty-four as “spiritual
bodies,” not as “spirits without bodies” (II Corinthians 5:2-3)! The flesh of which
the spiritual (heavenly/celestial-vs.40) body is to be made will be unlike anything
that now exists on earth. It will not be as the flesh of present man; as beasts,
fishes, or birds (I Corinthians 15:35-39), but, rather, God will provide a fleshly
body that pleases Him (vs.38). These facts are also evidenced and implied in
verse fifty where we are told that our present flesh and blood bodies, which are
corruptible, cannot enter the kingdom of heaven (which is incorruptible).
Therefore, we will be clothed (II Corinthians 5:1-3) in the resurrection with fleshly,
incorruptible, spiritual bodies unlike our present fleshly, corruptible, natural
bodies. Note very carefully what Paul is saying in verse fifty. He does not say that
incorruptible “flesh and bones” cannot enter heaven! He is saying that corruptible
“flesh and blood” cannot enter heaven! Note also in Luke 24:39 that Jesus’
resurrected body consisted of “flesh and bones.” That His resurrected body had
been “changed” is further seen by the placing of Thomas’ fingers “into the print of
the nails” and the thrusting of his hand “into His side,” indicating an absence of
blood as we know it! This is the incorruptible, glorious, “flesh and bones” body
that the disciples saw taken up into heaven and the same incorruptible, glorious,
“flesh and bones” body that all shall see returning from heaven one day (Acts
1:9-11; Revelation 1:7). In that great day He has promised to ‘change our vile
(corruptible) bodies, that they may be fashioned like unto His glorious
(resurrected) body, . . .’ (Philippians 3:21) and then “we shall be like Him” (I John
4:2)! Note, as well, that the corruptible bodies of those who are alive when the
resurrection occurs will also be “changed” into incorruptible bodies (spiritual
bodies) fit for an eternity in heaven (I Corinthians 15:51-52)!

Sunday, April 3, 2011

QUESTION: Did Jesus drink alcoholic beverages?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
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QUESTION: Did Jesus drink alcoholic beverages?
ANSWER: No! That Christ stands opposed to the use of alcoholic beverages is
made clear in Proverbs 23:29-35 and Isaiah 5:11. Note that these two passages
show a connection between “wine” and “strong drink.” Then consider Habakkuk
2:15, “Woe unto them that givest his neighbour drink, that puttest the bottle to
him, and makest him drunken also, that thou mayest look on their nakedness.”
Certainly, this does not suggest that our Lord who was without sin, having kept
the Old Law perfectly, including this passage, gave His neighbour (the twelve
and those at the wedding in Cana) to drink and “put the bottle to them.” Neither
does it suggest that He Himself drank alcoholic beverages. Clearly the opposite
is taught!

Saturday, April 2, 2011

QUESTION: Can man today live without food for forty days, as did Christ (Matthew 4:2)?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Can man today live without food for forty days, as did Christ
(Matthew 4:2)?
ANSWER: It is not likely that any could survive such an ordeal! It seems clear
that this particular fasting of Christ was miraculously supported.

Friday, April 1, 2011

QUESTION: In answer to a question in the Bible Correspondence Course, I answered that Jesus had an earthly father named Joseph. You marked it wrong. Why?

Bible Questions & Answers

If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: In answer to a question in the Bible Correspondence Course, I
answered that Jesus had an earthly father named Joseph. You marked it
wrong. Why?
ANSWER: The Correspondence Course is teaching that Jesus was not
physically fathered by a human being. This means that Joseph was not a
participant in the conception of Jesus (Matthew 1:18). Matthew tells us that which
was conceived in Mary was “of the Holy Ghost” (Matthew 1:20). Therefore, we
may look at Joseph as Jesus’ stepfather, but His true and real Father is the very
God of heaven. Thus we refer to Him as the Son of God!