Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Were the Campbell’s inspired?
ANSWER: No! With the completion and confirmation of the word of God, the
need for inspired men ceased (Mark 16:20; I Corinthians 13:8-13).
Tuesday, May 31, 2011
Monday, May 30, 2011
QUESTION: What was the restoration movement?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What was the restoration movement?
ANSWER: Following the “Dark Ages,” (A period of time lasting for several
hundred years through the fourteenth century), men like Martin Luther and others
began the task of trying to “reform” the apostate Catholic Church. They were
unsuccessful in this attempt and created an atmosphere in which
denominationalism had it’s rise. More recently, primarily during the seventeenth
and eighteenth centuries, men on both sides of the world began to
simultaneously, through the providence of God, realize the need to restore New
Testament Christianity to it’s original design and intent. These men had realized
that the “Reformation” was a failure and, thus, began what was to become known
as the “Restoration Movement.” The success of this effort is seen in the many
churches of Christ (Romans 16:16) which now circle the globe!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What was the restoration movement?
ANSWER: Following the “Dark Ages,” (A period of time lasting for several
hundred years through the fourteenth century), men like Martin Luther and others
began the task of trying to “reform” the apostate Catholic Church. They were
unsuccessful in this attempt and created an atmosphere in which
denominationalism had it’s rise. More recently, primarily during the seventeenth
and eighteenth centuries, men on both sides of the world began to
simultaneously, through the providence of God, realize the need to restore New
Testament Christianity to it’s original design and intent. These men had realized
that the “Reformation” was a failure and, thus, began what was to become known
as the “Restoration Movement.” The success of this effort is seen in the many
churches of Christ (Romans 16:16) which now circle the globe!
Sunday, May 29, 2011
QUESTION: Where was the church during the Dark Ages and how could it grow without the Bible?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Where was the church during the Dark Ages and how could it
grow without the Bible?
ANSWER: It had been prophesied that a great falling away would come (I
Timothy 4:1-5; II Timothy 4:1-5). This apostasy, occurring over many years, was
realized in its fullest sense with the development and establishment of the
Roman Catholic Church in about 606AD. During these years and for many years
to follow, the church of the Bible was greatly oppressed. There are two opinions
as to the state of the church during these years. The first is that the true church
temporarily ceased to live and function as it did during the first century; that it
only existed in “seed form.” The Word of God is described as a “seed” in Luke
8:11 and it is, therefore, held that as long as the “seed” existed, it then follows
that the church also would be existent, but in a dormant state. When the “seed”
was eventually planted following the “Dark Ages,” it produced the original church,
which began then to live and function as it did at the beginning. The second
opinion, which I have adopted, is that the church as originally established, though
oppressed and driven into near obscurity, never totally ceased to live and
function in accordance with the Bible, the will of God. Which opinion is the
accurate one is not really important! What is important is that God’s Word (which
shall never pass away - Matthew 24:35), though severely suppressed, obviously
continued throughout and we have it in it’s purity today. So no matter where we
may be; no matter who we are, if we adhere to it’s precepts and patterns only,
congregations of the church will come into existence and grow exactly as Christ
intended, being totally and in every sense the church of Christ! It is comforting for
us to know with assurance that His kingdom, the church, will never be destroyed
(Daniel 2:44); that it is without end (Luke 1:33) and you and I can be members of
it today (Acts 2:38-47)!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Where was the church during the Dark Ages and how could it
grow without the Bible?
ANSWER: It had been prophesied that a great falling away would come (I
Timothy 4:1-5; II Timothy 4:1-5). This apostasy, occurring over many years, was
realized in its fullest sense with the development and establishment of the
Roman Catholic Church in about 606AD. During these years and for many years
to follow, the church of the Bible was greatly oppressed. There are two opinions
as to the state of the church during these years. The first is that the true church
temporarily ceased to live and function as it did during the first century; that it
only existed in “seed form.” The Word of God is described as a “seed” in Luke
8:11 and it is, therefore, held that as long as the “seed” existed, it then follows
that the church also would be existent, but in a dormant state. When the “seed”
was eventually planted following the “Dark Ages,” it produced the original church,
which began then to live and function as it did at the beginning. The second
opinion, which I have adopted, is that the church as originally established, though
oppressed and driven into near obscurity, never totally ceased to live and
function in accordance with the Bible, the will of God. Which opinion is the
accurate one is not really important! What is important is that God’s Word (which
shall never pass away - Matthew 24:35), though severely suppressed, obviously
continued throughout and we have it in it’s purity today. So no matter where we
may be; no matter who we are, if we adhere to it’s precepts and patterns only,
congregations of the church will come into existence and grow exactly as Christ
intended, being totally and in every sense the church of Christ! It is comforting for
us to know with assurance that His kingdom, the church, will never be destroyed
(Daniel 2:44); that it is without end (Luke 1:33) and you and I can be members of
it today (Acts 2:38-47)!
Saturday, May 28, 2011
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has
sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
ANSWER: The person in question should not be assigned any responsibility in
the congregation until he repents! All of the people involved in the relationship
described need to be taught the truth about their condition. Polygamy is sin! God
has ordained that marriage is between two people, one man and one woman,
until separated by death (Matthew 19:4-6; Romans 7:1-3). When a man and a
woman are scripturally married and another person enters that relationship, all of
those actively involved do so without the blessing of God. Further, all who
knowingly participate in such a marriage are in sin as long as it continues. The
above passages demand that the third party be excluded from the relationship,
and that all who have participated come to repentance. Without scriptural
repentance (Matthew 21:28-31; Luke 13:3; Acts 8:22; Acts 17:30), none can be
saved.
After the person in question has been taught and every attempt has been made
to win his soul again, if he refuses to repent scripturally, it is commanded of God
that fellowship be withdrawn from him, that his soul may be saved in the day of
the Lord Jesus (I Corinthians 5).
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has
sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
ANSWER: The person in question should not be assigned any responsibility in
the congregation until he repents! All of the people involved in the relationship
described need to be taught the truth about their condition. Polygamy is sin! God
has ordained that marriage is between two people, one man and one woman,
until separated by death (Matthew 19:4-6; Romans 7:1-3). When a man and a
woman are scripturally married and another person enters that relationship, all of
those actively involved do so without the blessing of God. Further, all who
knowingly participate in such a marriage are in sin as long as it continues. The
above passages demand that the third party be excluded from the relationship,
and that all who have participated come to repentance. Without scriptural
repentance (Matthew 21:28-31; Luke 13:3; Acts 8:22; Acts 17:30), none can be
saved.
After the person in question has been taught and every attempt has been made
to win his soul again, if he refuses to repent scripturally, it is commanded of God
that fellowship be withdrawn from him, that his soul may be saved in the day of
the Lord Jesus (I Corinthians 5).
Friday, May 27, 2011
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has
sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
ANSWER: The person in question should not be assigned any responsibility in
the congregation until he repents! All of the people involved in the relationship
described need to be taught the truth about their condition. Polygamy is sin! God
has ordained that marriage is between two people, one man and one woman,
until separated by death (Matthew 19:4-6; Romans 7:1-3). When a man and a
woman are scripturally married and another person enters that relationship, all of
those actively involved do so without the blessing of God. Further, all who
knowingly participate in such a marriage are in sin as long as it continues. The
above passages demand that the third party be excluded from the relationship,
and that all who have participated come to repentance. Without scriptural
repentance (Matthew 21:28-31; Luke 13:3; Acts 8:22; Acts 17:30), none can be
saved.
After the person in question has been taught and every attempt has been made
to win his soul again, if he refuses to repent scripturally, it is commanded of God
that fellowship be withdrawn from him, that his soul may be saved in the day of
the Lord Jesus (I Corinthians 5).
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If a Christian man marries a second wife, we know he has
sinned, but what will the duties of this person be in the church?
ANSWER: The person in question should not be assigned any responsibility in
the congregation until he repents! All of the people involved in the relationship
described need to be taught the truth about their condition. Polygamy is sin! God
has ordained that marriage is between two people, one man and one woman,
until separated by death (Matthew 19:4-6; Romans 7:1-3). When a man and a
woman are scripturally married and another person enters that relationship, all of
those actively involved do so without the blessing of God. Further, all who
knowingly participate in such a marriage are in sin as long as it continues. The
above passages demand that the third party be excluded from the relationship,
and that all who have participated come to repentance. Without scriptural
repentance (Matthew 21:28-31; Luke 13:3; Acts 8:22; Acts 17:30), none can be
saved.
After the person in question has been taught and every attempt has been made
to win his soul again, if he refuses to repent scripturally, it is commanded of God
that fellowship be withdrawn from him, that his soul may be saved in the day of
the Lord Jesus (I Corinthians 5).
Thursday, May 26, 2011
QUESTION: Why was the church of Christ divided?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Why was the church of Christ divided?
ANSWER: In had been prophesied that such would happen (Acts 20:28-30; I
Timothy 4:1-4; II Timothy 4:3-4; II Peter 2:1-3). These passages (and others)
clearly tell us “why” division occurs. It occurred in the first century and in our
generation as well! When false teachers are permitted to bring in “damnable
heresies” unauthorized by God’s Word (most recently; worldly entertainment,
instruments of music, missionary societies, etc.) and when people, having itching
ears, heap these teachers to themselves, refusing rather to “try” them, disciples
will be drawn away and division will occur.
Though divisions are sure to come, we can be assured that His church; His
kingdom shall have no end (Luke 1:33)!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Why was the church of Christ divided?
ANSWER: In had been prophesied that such would happen (Acts 20:28-30; I
Timothy 4:1-4; II Timothy 4:3-4; II Peter 2:1-3). These passages (and others)
clearly tell us “why” division occurs. It occurred in the first century and in our
generation as well! When false teachers are permitted to bring in “damnable
heresies” unauthorized by God’s Word (most recently; worldly entertainment,
instruments of music, missionary societies, etc.) and when people, having itching
ears, heap these teachers to themselves, refusing rather to “try” them, disciples
will be drawn away and division will occur.
Though divisions are sure to come, we can be assured that His church; His
kingdom shall have no end (Luke 1:33)!
Wednesday, May 25, 2011
QUESTION: Would you tell me about the unity of the church?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Would you tell me about the unity of the church?
ANSWER: In Ephesians 4:4, the Bible says that there is only “one body.” In
Ephesians 1:22-23; Colossians 1:18 & 24, we learn that the “body” is the church.
Therefore, if there is only “one body,” there is clearly only one church. This
church is the church of the Bible and is the only church that is of divine origin. All
others are of men and will eventually fail (Psalms 127:1). Neither is there
salvation to be found in them (Acts 4:12). The only church in which one can be
saved is called in the Bible the “church of Christ” (Romans 16:16). It is the church
that Christ promised to build (Matthew 16:18); the church that He died to build
(Acts 20:28); and the church to which baptized believers were added on the day
of Pentecost (Acts 2:47). It is that body of believers, called out from this world,
who look only to the word of God for their worship practices and conduct of life. It
is the church of Christ!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Would you tell me about the unity of the church?
ANSWER: In Ephesians 4:4, the Bible says that there is only “one body.” In
Ephesians 1:22-23; Colossians 1:18 & 24, we learn that the “body” is the church.
Therefore, if there is only “one body,” there is clearly only one church. This
church is the church of the Bible and is the only church that is of divine origin. All
others are of men and will eventually fail (Psalms 127:1). Neither is there
salvation to be found in them (Acts 4:12). The only church in which one can be
saved is called in the Bible the “church of Christ” (Romans 16:16). It is the church
that Christ promised to build (Matthew 16:18); the church that He died to build
(Acts 20:28); and the church to which baptized believers were added on the day
of Pentecost (Acts 2:47). It is that body of believers, called out from this world,
who look only to the word of God for their worship practices and conduct of life. It
is the church of Christ!
Tuesday, May 24, 2011
QUESTION: Would you inform me about the organization and the worship of the church?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Would you inform me about the organization and the worship
of the church?
ANSWER: The church of the Bible is called the church(es) of Christ (Romans
16:16). The head of the church is Jesus Christ (Ephesians 1:22). Each
congregation is self-ruling and overseen by a plurality of elders, independent of
all other congregations. By this we understand that there is no higher governing
body on this earth. Deacons are to serve the congregation under the oversight of
the elders. Evangelists are to proclaim the Word (II Timothy 4:1-5). A religious
group without this prescribed organization cannot be the church of the Bible!
Worship services on the first day of the week consist of praying, singing (without
instruments), partaking of the Lord’s Supper (every first day), preaching, and
contributing as prospered by God (Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 16:1-2;
Ephesians 5:19). To be pleasing to God, all of these items must be engaged in,
with nothing added.
Terms of entry into the church of the Bible are: believing in Christ as the Son of
God; repenting of all past sins; confessing with the mouth belief in Jesus; being
immersed in water for the remission of sins (John 8:24; Acts 17:30-31; Romans
10:9-10; Acts 2:38). After having done this, one must be faithful unto death to
receive the crown of life (Revelation 2:10).
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Would you inform me about the organization and the worship
of the church?
ANSWER: The church of the Bible is called the church(es) of Christ (Romans
16:16). The head of the church is Jesus Christ (Ephesians 1:22). Each
congregation is self-ruling and overseen by a plurality of elders, independent of
all other congregations. By this we understand that there is no higher governing
body on this earth. Deacons are to serve the congregation under the oversight of
the elders. Evangelists are to proclaim the Word (II Timothy 4:1-5). A religious
group without this prescribed organization cannot be the church of the Bible!
Worship services on the first day of the week consist of praying, singing (without
instruments), partaking of the Lord’s Supper (every first day), preaching, and
contributing as prospered by God (Acts 2:42; Acts 20:7; I Corinthians 16:1-2;
Ephesians 5:19). To be pleasing to God, all of these items must be engaged in,
with nothing added.
Terms of entry into the church of the Bible are: believing in Christ as the Son of
God; repenting of all past sins; confessing with the mouth belief in Jesus; being
immersed in water for the remission of sins (John 8:24; Acts 17:30-31; Romans
10:9-10; Acts 2:38). After having done this, one must be faithful unto death to
receive the crown of life (Revelation 2:10).
Monday, May 23, 2011
QUESTION: Does the church save?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does the church save?
ANSWER: The saved are added by the Lord to the church (Acts 2:47). After
having been added to the church, the saved in the church then go into all the
world preaching the gospel so that others can be saved (Mark 16:15-16). Paul
says that the church makes known the manifold wisdom of God (Ephesians
3:10). By preaching the gospel then, the church makes known the wisdom of
God unto salvation. In this secondary and indirect sense it can be said that the
church saves, but it must be realized that there is no direct authority in the
church. All authority resides solely in the word of God! Some in the
denominational world, such as the Catholic Church, teach that saving authority
resides in the church and not the Word of God! Faithful Christians will reject any
such notion!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does the church save?
ANSWER: The saved are added by the Lord to the church (Acts 2:47). After
having been added to the church, the saved in the church then go into all the
world preaching the gospel so that others can be saved (Mark 16:15-16). Paul
says that the church makes known the manifold wisdom of God (Ephesians
3:10). By preaching the gospel then, the church makes known the wisdom of
God unto salvation. In this secondary and indirect sense it can be said that the
church saves, but it must be realized that there is no direct authority in the
church. All authority resides solely in the word of God! Some in the
denominational world, such as the Catholic Church, teach that saving authority
resides in the church and not the Word of God! Faithful Christians will reject any
such notion!
Sunday, May 22, 2011
Are hospitals and schools part of the work of the church?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Are hospitals and schools part of the work of the church?
ANSWER: Hospitals exist for the purpose of healing the physical body and
secular schools exist for the purposes of non-religious education. Both of these
purposes are admirable and, indeed, may be engaged in by a Christian, often to
the furtherance of the kingdom of Christ. However, the works in which the church
may be involved will always relate scripturally in some fashion to the great
commission, “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name
of the father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe
all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always,
even unto the end of the world (Matthew 28:19-20).”
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Are hospitals and schools part of the work of the church?
ANSWER: Hospitals exist for the purpose of healing the physical body and
secular schools exist for the purposes of non-religious education. Both of these
purposes are admirable and, indeed, may be engaged in by a Christian, often to
the furtherance of the kingdom of Christ. However, the works in which the church
may be involved will always relate scripturally in some fashion to the great
commission, “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name
of the father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe
all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always,
even unto the end of the world (Matthew 28:19-20).”
Saturday, May 21, 2011
QUESTION: Who is the head of the church in the world and where is he found?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Who is the head of the church in the world and where is he
found?
ANSWER: There is no earthly head of the church! Christ is seated at the right
hand of God (Acts 2:29-35) and has been made “to be the head of all things to
the church” (Ephesians 1:22). Each congregation of the Lord’s church is selfgoverning,
answerable only to Christ!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Who is the head of the church in the world and where is he
found?
ANSWER: There is no earthly head of the church! Christ is seated at the right
hand of God (Acts 2:29-35) and has been made “to be the head of all things to
the church” (Ephesians 1:22). Each congregation of the Lord’s church is selfgoverning,
answerable only to Christ!
Friday, May 20, 2011
QUESTION: Is the church the house of God?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Is the church the house of God?
ANSWER: Yes! Please read I Timothy 3:15.
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Is the church the house of God?
ANSWER: Yes! Please read I Timothy 3:15.
Thursday, May 19, 2011
Today's hUMOR
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
THE CHURCH
QUESTION: Is it necessary to be a member of Christ’s church in order to
be saved or can one be saved in the Catholic Church, or one of the other
denominations?
ANSWER: It is necessary to be a member of the church for which Jesus died in
order to be saved. He said that He would build one church (Matthew 16:18). In
Acts chapter two, we read of its establishment. Paul said in Ephesians 1:22-23,
that the church is His body. Later, in Ephesians 4:4, he tells us that there is only
one body. It is into this one body, this church, that one “must” be baptized
through the agency (the direction) of the one Spirit (I Corinthians 12:13). The
direction of the Spirit comes only through the word of God, which tells us how a
person enters that one church. On the day of Pentecost (Acts 2), those who
“gladly received his word were baptized; and the same day there were added
unto them about three thousand souls” (vs.41). “And the Lord added daily to the
church (His church) such as were being saved (vs.47). These believing people
repented, and were immersed for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38), after which
they were added to the church that Christ had built. (They were not added to the
Catholic Church, which was established 600 years later, nor were they added to
denominationalism, which had its several beginnings in the fifteenth century!) All
of the saved people on Pentecost Day were members of the church of Christ!
Obviously, there is no difference between those who live today and the people of
Acts chapter two! When people today, as they, gladly receive His word (when
they believe and submit totally to it), repent, confess, and are immersed in water
for the remission of sins, they too are added by God to that same church; the one
church, the Church of Christ (Romans 16:16). Since Christ built only one church
(the church of the Bible), it can only be concluded that all other religious
organizations (including the Catholic and Protestant Churches) were built by man
(Matthew 15:8-14). In these, there is no promise of salvation; no promise of
hope; no promise of the blessings of Christ (Ephesians 1:3). These promises are
to be found only in His church; the church of Christ!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
THE CHURCH
QUESTION: Is it necessary to be a member of Christ’s church in order to
be saved or can one be saved in the Catholic Church, or one of the other
denominations?
ANSWER: It is necessary to be a member of the church for which Jesus died in
order to be saved. He said that He would build one church (Matthew 16:18). In
Acts chapter two, we read of its establishment. Paul said in Ephesians 1:22-23,
that the church is His body. Later, in Ephesians 4:4, he tells us that there is only
one body. It is into this one body, this church, that one “must” be baptized
through the agency (the direction) of the one Spirit (I Corinthians 12:13). The
direction of the Spirit comes only through the word of God, which tells us how a
person enters that one church. On the day of Pentecost (Acts 2), those who
“gladly received his word were baptized; and the same day there were added
unto them about three thousand souls” (vs.41). “And the Lord added daily to the
church (His church) such as were being saved (vs.47). These believing people
repented, and were immersed for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38), after which
they were added to the church that Christ had built. (They were not added to the
Catholic Church, which was established 600 years later, nor were they added to
denominationalism, which had its several beginnings in the fifteenth century!) All
of the saved people on Pentecost Day were members of the church of Christ!
Obviously, there is no difference between those who live today and the people of
Acts chapter two! When people today, as they, gladly receive His word (when
they believe and submit totally to it), repent, confess, and are immersed in water
for the remission of sins, they too are added by God to that same church; the one
church, the Church of Christ (Romans 16:16). Since Christ built only one church
(the church of the Bible), it can only be concluded that all other religious
organizations (including the Catholic and Protestant Churches) were built by man
(Matthew 15:8-14). In these, there is no promise of salvation; no promise of
hope; no promise of the blessings of Christ (Ephesians 1:3). These promises are
to be found only in His church; the church of Christ!
Wednesday, May 18, 2011
QUESTION: Have we concentrated less in the past on the Holy Spirit than the Father and the Son?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Have we concentrated less in the past on the Holy Spirit than
the Father and the Son?
ANSWER: The line of thought, that we have not concentrated on the Holy Spirit
to the same degree as God and Christ, is to some degree legitimate, since He is
the third person in the Godhead. However, I know of none that have suppressed
the knowledge, attributes, or functions of the Holy Spirit. It appears that some,
especially in the Pentecostal movement, have taken it upon themselves to give
“undue” attention to the Holy Spirit, thus relegating the Father and Son to
seemingly inferior roles. This ought not to be! The yearning for spiritual gifts by
the groups you speak of stems from an immature need to “walk by sight and not
by faith,” instead of the other way around (I Corinthians 13:11; II Corinthians 5:7).
It is an attempt to prove (or to be assured of) one’s faith based on a “feeling” of
being set free as the result of seeing or experiencing a sign from God (Matthew
12:39). It is a false assurance based on a false premise and it, therefore, will not
stand in Judgment! Faith comes only by hearing (which includes acceptance and
obedience) the Word of God (Romans 10:17).
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Have we concentrated less in the past on the Holy Spirit than
the Father and the Son?
ANSWER: The line of thought, that we have not concentrated on the Holy Spirit
to the same degree as God and Christ, is to some degree legitimate, since He is
the third person in the Godhead. However, I know of none that have suppressed
the knowledge, attributes, or functions of the Holy Spirit. It appears that some,
especially in the Pentecostal movement, have taken it upon themselves to give
“undue” attention to the Holy Spirit, thus relegating the Father and Son to
seemingly inferior roles. This ought not to be! The yearning for spiritual gifts by
the groups you speak of stems from an immature need to “walk by sight and not
by faith,” instead of the other way around (I Corinthians 13:11; II Corinthians 5:7).
It is an attempt to prove (or to be assured of) one’s faith based on a “feeling” of
being set free as the result of seeing or experiencing a sign from God (Matthew
12:39). It is a false assurance based on a false premise and it, therefore, will not
stand in Judgment! Faith comes only by hearing (which includes acceptance and
obedience) the Word of God (Romans 10:17).
Tuesday, May 17, 2011
QUESTION: Why weren’t all of the gifts mentioned in I Corinthians 13:8?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Why weren’t all of the gifts mentioned in I Corinthians 13:8?
ANSWER: In I Corinthians 13:8-12, the thrust was not to show that only specific
gifts were to cease, but rather to show that that which was in part (the miraculous
and the miraculous age, necessary for confirmation and edification) was to
terminate when that which was “perfect/complete” came, as previously
discussed. The point would have been made no stronger by citing all of the nine
gifts, since the purpose of all was the same. Therefore, it is clear and understood
by biblical scholars at all levels that the three mentioned are simply
representative of the total. The principle is used throughout the scriptures, e.g.,
Acts 20:7: “breaking of bread” is a part of the worship that stands for the whole;
that is, “breaking of bread” in this context, means “to worship.” .
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Why weren’t all of the gifts mentioned in I Corinthians 13:8?
ANSWER: In I Corinthians 13:8-12, the thrust was not to show that only specific
gifts were to cease, but rather to show that that which was in part (the miraculous
and the miraculous age, necessary for confirmation and edification) was to
terminate when that which was “perfect/complete” came, as previously
discussed. The point would have been made no stronger by citing all of the nine
gifts, since the purpose of all was the same. Therefore, it is clear and understood
by biblical scholars at all levels that the three mentioned are simply
representative of the total. The principle is used throughout the scriptures, e.g.,
Acts 20:7: “breaking of bread” is a part of the worship that stands for the whole;
that is, “breaking of bread” in this context, means “to worship.” .
Monday, May 16, 2011
QUESTION: Is it true that we take away the empowering of the Holy Spirit today when we discredit Mark 16:16-20?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Is it true that we take away the empowering of the Holy Spirit
today when we discredit Mark 16:16-20?
ANSWER: It is not true that people are empowered to miraculously heal today
as previously discussed. Certainly, we should not discredit Mark 16:16-20 or any
part of the Bible. However, to read something into a passage that is not there is
to discredit in a most grievous way! This particular passage simply says that
confirming signs were to accompany believers. It does not teach here, or
elsewhere in the Bible, that every Christian for all time would be able to perform
one or all of these signs. The Bible is clear throughout that such was not the
case, e.g., Acts 8:13; Romans 1:6-11. Neither is there here a discussion as to
who specifically would receive the gifts or of the duration of the gifts. To base a
doctrine or belief on one passage to the exclusion of all related material is to
violate the intent of the subject. All passages relative to a subject must be studied
with understanding and knowledge coming from and based upon the sum of
those passages. It should be noted that the particular prophecies of this passage
have been fulfilled; that signs did, indeed, follow the believers, but only in the way
(I Corinthians 12:11) and during the time appointed of God (I Corinthians 13:10).
Demons were cast out (Acts 8:7; Acts 5:16). They spoke in new tongues (Acts
2:4-11). They took up serpents (Acts 28:5). Jesus does not say they “shall” drink
some deadly thing, but “if” they should. Knowing that attempts would be made on
the lives of the apostles, he gave them assurance, that if by poison, it would not
hurt them. Allow me to suggest that if the Pentecostal believes that these
confirming signs are requisite today, then it is he or she who refuses to confirm
their word with signs that discredit the passage. Where is the Pentecostal today
who will take up a deadly viper to confirm what is being taught? Where is the
Pentecostal who will drink deadly poison to confirm his or her doctrine? Why is it
that they “do” exorcisms, healings, and speaking in tongues, but exclude the
other two? May I also suggest that it is not ethical to say that they heard that
someone in a far away country did it? There is no proof in such allegations!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Is it true that we take away the empowering of the Holy Spirit
today when we discredit Mark 16:16-20?
ANSWER: It is not true that people are empowered to miraculously heal today
as previously discussed. Certainly, we should not discredit Mark 16:16-20 or any
part of the Bible. However, to read something into a passage that is not there is
to discredit in a most grievous way! This particular passage simply says that
confirming signs were to accompany believers. It does not teach here, or
elsewhere in the Bible, that every Christian for all time would be able to perform
one or all of these signs. The Bible is clear throughout that such was not the
case, e.g., Acts 8:13; Romans 1:6-11. Neither is there here a discussion as to
who specifically would receive the gifts or of the duration of the gifts. To base a
doctrine or belief on one passage to the exclusion of all related material is to
violate the intent of the subject. All passages relative to a subject must be studied
with understanding and knowledge coming from and based upon the sum of
those passages. It should be noted that the particular prophecies of this passage
have been fulfilled; that signs did, indeed, follow the believers, but only in the way
(I Corinthians 12:11) and during the time appointed of God (I Corinthians 13:10).
Demons were cast out (Acts 8:7; Acts 5:16). They spoke in new tongues (Acts
2:4-11). They took up serpents (Acts 28:5). Jesus does not say they “shall” drink
some deadly thing, but “if” they should. Knowing that attempts would be made on
the lives of the apostles, he gave them assurance, that if by poison, it would not
hurt them. Allow me to suggest that if the Pentecostal believes that these
confirming signs are requisite today, then it is he or she who refuses to confirm
their word with signs that discredit the passage. Where is the Pentecostal today
who will take up a deadly viper to confirm what is being taught? Where is the
Pentecostal who will drink deadly poison to confirm his or her doctrine? Why is it
that they “do” exorcisms, healings, and speaking in tongues, but exclude the
other two? May I also suggest that it is not ethical to say that they heard that
someone in a far away country did it? There is no proof in such allegations!
Sunday, May 15, 2011
QUESTION: Does I Corinthians 13:1 teach that there are two kinds of tongues; one of foreign languages; the other a heavenly language?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does I Corinthians 13:1 teach that there are two kinds of
tongues; one of foreign languages; the other a heavenly language?
ANSWER: No! I Corinthians 13:1 does not indicate that there are two kinds of
tongues which Christians are to, or may, employ. He is simply saying that even
though (if) he had the ability to speak all of the tongues known to men and
angels, without love it would avail him nothing. The emphasis here is not on languages, but upon love! There appears here to be, however, an allusion to
what he heard in II Corinthians 12:4, where he says that he was caught up into
paradise and heard words that were unlawful for him to utter (the same would be
true of any person). He may, then, in I Corinthians 13:1, be referring to, not what
he supposed to be the language of angels, but what he actually heard; a higher,
more eloquent, heavenly language. Thus, even though he, too, had the ability to
speak with this eloquent language of angels that he had heard with his own ears,
as well as the languages of men, the result and effect would be as sounding
brass, or a tinkling cymbal, if unaccompanied with love.
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Does I Corinthians 13:1 teach that there are two kinds of
tongues; one of foreign languages; the other a heavenly language?
ANSWER: No! I Corinthians 13:1 does not indicate that there are two kinds of
tongues which Christians are to, or may, employ. He is simply saying that even
though (if) he had the ability to speak all of the tongues known to men and
angels, without love it would avail him nothing. The emphasis here is not on languages, but upon love! There appears here to be, however, an allusion to
what he heard in II Corinthians 12:4, where he says that he was caught up into
paradise and heard words that were unlawful for him to utter (the same would be
true of any person). He may, then, in I Corinthians 13:1, be referring to, not what
he supposed to be the language of angels, but what he actually heard; a higher,
more eloquent, heavenly language. Thus, even though he, too, had the ability to
speak with this eloquent language of angels that he had heard with his own ears,
as well as the languages of men, the result and effect would be as sounding
brass, or a tinkling cymbal, if unaccompanied with love.
Saturday, May 14, 2011
QUESTION: Our “Pastor” says that the “perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 refers to the Second Coming. True?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Our “Pastor” says that the “perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10
refers to the Second Coming. True?
ANSWER: No! “Perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 cannot refer to the Second
Coming, because when the “perfect is come” faith, hope, and love will still abide
(vs.13). Such will not be the case at the Second Coming, since there will be no
need for hope and faith when we see the Christ, for “faith” is the evidence of
things “not seen” (Hebrews 11:1) and “hope” that is “seen” is not hope (Romans
8:24). I believe you indicated previously that you were affiliated with the
Presbyterians. Allow me to quote Albert Barnes, the greatest Presbyterian
Scholar and Commentator to have lived. He says that the word abideth must be
understood as to “remain” and “must be understood to be used to denote
permanency, when the other things of which he had spoken had passed away,
and the sense is, that faith, hope, and love would remain when the gift of tongues
should cease, and the need of prophecy, etc.; that is, these should survive them
all.” (Barnes Commentary on I Corinthians 10:13, Page 257). Mr. Barnes has
written correctly! Logically and scripturally, faith and hope will not remain at or
after the Second Coming! Therefore, the “perfect” of I Corinthians 13:10 that ‘is
to come’ before the cessation of gifts cannot logically or scripturally refer to the
Second Coming.
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Our “Pastor” says that the “perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10
refers to the Second Coming. True?
ANSWER: No! “Perfect” in I Corinthians 13:10 cannot refer to the Second
Coming, because when the “perfect is come” faith, hope, and love will still abide
(vs.13). Such will not be the case at the Second Coming, since there will be no
need for hope and faith when we see the Christ, for “faith” is the evidence of
things “not seen” (Hebrews 11:1) and “hope” that is “seen” is not hope (Romans
8:24). I believe you indicated previously that you were affiliated with the
Presbyterians. Allow me to quote Albert Barnes, the greatest Presbyterian
Scholar and Commentator to have lived. He says that the word abideth must be
understood as to “remain” and “must be understood to be used to denote
permanency, when the other things of which he had spoken had passed away,
and the sense is, that faith, hope, and love would remain when the gift of tongues
should cease, and the need of prophecy, etc.; that is, these should survive them
all.” (Barnes Commentary on I Corinthians 10:13, Page 257). Mr. Barnes has
written correctly! Logically and scripturally, faith and hope will not remain at or
after the Second Coming! Therefore, the “perfect” of I Corinthians 13:10 that ‘is
to come’ before the cessation of gifts cannot logically or scripturally refer to the
Second Coming.
Friday, May 13, 2011
QUESTION: Please explain further Ephesians 4:7-14.
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Please explain further Ephesians 4:7-14.
ANSWER: Note first of all (for ease of understanding) that verses 9 and 10 are
parenthetically expressed and are not germane to the issue at hand. Verse 7
states that Christ gives to every obedient person the gift of His grace according
to His measure. For example: Acts 2:38 teaches that those who are immersed for
(in order to attain) the remission of sins “shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
What did this mean to the people who lived then and what does this mean for
you and me today? Allow the Bible to explain! Acts 3:19 is a parallel passage to
Acts 2:38. They teach the same thing and explain each other! Peter is saying the
same thing to the Jews on Solomon’s porch as he was to the Jews on Pentecost,
i.e.; he preached the same sermon and extended the same invitation!
Acts 2:38: “Repent, and be baptized for the remission of sins, and ye shall
receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”
Acts 3:19: “Repent, and be converted that your sins may be blotted out, when
the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord.
The “gift of the Holy Spirit” or “the refreshing that comes from the presence of the
Lord” is the many blessings each Christian derives from the Holy Spirit according
to Christ’s measure. In the first century, the many blessings (times of refreshing)
from the Holy Spirit would have included miraculous gifts. Today, the many
blessings (times of refreshing) from the Holy Spirit do not include miraculous
gifts, because their purpose has ceased to exist. What blessings are derived
today? Many, not the least of which are forgiveness, mercy, grace, and the hope
of heaven!
Verse 8 of Ephesians says basically that when He ascended on high, having
overcome the captivity of death, He gave gifts unto men. The gifts could not have
been given unless He first returned to heaven from which he had come. Jesus so
said in John 16:7, “Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I
go away: for if I go not away, the comforter (Holy Ghost) will not come to you (the
apostles); but if I depart I will send Him to you.”
Verse 11 relates to whom the gifts were given (not how or how many), i.e.,
apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors (elders), and teachers. Verse 12 explains reasons for giving the gifts: Perfecting (maturing) of the saints
(Christians), for the work of the ministry (proclamation of the gospel in all the
world), and edifying the church.
Verse 13 limits the duration of the gifts: “Till,” an adverb of time, we all come to
the oneness (unity) of “the” faith; not simply “faith,” but to a unified system of faith
(the gospel) by which, and through which, we can have full knowledge of the Son
of God that will enable us to be complete/mature and walking in the image of
Christ! When this knowledge would become attainable through that which was,
and is, is able to make a person “perfect/mature (II Timothy 3:16-17), the gifts
would cease to be. The very same thing is taught in I Corinthians 13:8-10!
Verse 14 says that with our coming of age (no longer as children or the immature
– I Corinthians 13:11) we will not be tossed to and fro by every wind of doctrine
taught by those who deceive . . . but speaking the truth (John 17:17 – “Thy word
is truth”) in love one may mature up into Christ in “all” things. How do we know
false doctrine (John 8:32)? What is our maturation agent (I Peter 2:2)? The
gospel of Jesus Christ!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Please explain further Ephesians 4:7-14.
ANSWER: Note first of all (for ease of understanding) that verses 9 and 10 are
parenthetically expressed and are not germane to the issue at hand. Verse 7
states that Christ gives to every obedient person the gift of His grace according
to His measure. For example: Acts 2:38 teaches that those who are immersed for
(in order to attain) the remission of sins “shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
What did this mean to the people who lived then and what does this mean for
you and me today? Allow the Bible to explain! Acts 3:19 is a parallel passage to
Acts 2:38. They teach the same thing and explain each other! Peter is saying the
same thing to the Jews on Solomon’s porch as he was to the Jews on Pentecost,
i.e.; he preached the same sermon and extended the same invitation!
Acts 2:38: “Repent, and be baptized for the remission of sins, and ye shall
receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”
Acts 3:19: “Repent, and be converted that your sins may be blotted out, when
the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord.
The “gift of the Holy Spirit” or “the refreshing that comes from the presence of the
Lord” is the many blessings each Christian derives from the Holy Spirit according
to Christ’s measure. In the first century, the many blessings (times of refreshing)
from the Holy Spirit would have included miraculous gifts. Today, the many
blessings (times of refreshing) from the Holy Spirit do not include miraculous
gifts, because their purpose has ceased to exist. What blessings are derived
today? Many, not the least of which are forgiveness, mercy, grace, and the hope
of heaven!
Verse 8 of Ephesians says basically that when He ascended on high, having
overcome the captivity of death, He gave gifts unto men. The gifts could not have
been given unless He first returned to heaven from which he had come. Jesus so
said in John 16:7, “Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I
go away: for if I go not away, the comforter (Holy Ghost) will not come to you (the
apostles); but if I depart I will send Him to you.”
Verse 11 relates to whom the gifts were given (not how or how many), i.e.,
apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors (elders), and teachers. Verse 12 explains reasons for giving the gifts: Perfecting (maturing) of the saints
(Christians), for the work of the ministry (proclamation of the gospel in all the
world), and edifying the church.
Verse 13 limits the duration of the gifts: “Till,” an adverb of time, we all come to
the oneness (unity) of “the” faith; not simply “faith,” but to a unified system of faith
(the gospel) by which, and through which, we can have full knowledge of the Son
of God that will enable us to be complete/mature and walking in the image of
Christ! When this knowledge would become attainable through that which was,
and is, is able to make a person “perfect/mature (II Timothy 3:16-17), the gifts
would cease to be. The very same thing is taught in I Corinthians 13:8-10!
Verse 14 says that with our coming of age (no longer as children or the immature
– I Corinthians 13:11) we will not be tossed to and fro by every wind of doctrine
taught by those who deceive . . . but speaking the truth (John 17:17 – “Thy word
is truth”) in love one may mature up into Christ in “all” things. How do we know
false doctrine (John 8:32)? What is our maturation agent (I Peter 2:2)? The
gospel of Jesus Christ!
Tuesday, May 10, 2011
QUESTION: How are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:12 and how are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:13? Are they to be understood as referring to different periods?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians
13:12 and how are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:13?
Are they to be understood as referring to different periods?
ANSWER: I believe the context demands different understandings of the usage
of the word “now” in the two subject verses. “Now” in verse 12 (in contradistinction to “then”) has to refer to that period of time when Paul wrote,
before the completed Word of God. “Now” in verse 13 must be taken to mean “in
this present life.” The word “abideth” means “remains” and stands in
contradistinction to that which is passing away. Therefore, the word “now” (verse
13) would include the “now” time of verse 12, as well as all future time! In other
words, faith, hope, and love, were to be prevalent in the life of Christians during
that time and would be all that “remained” for all future time in light of the fact that
the other items mentioned were to cease!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians
13:12 and how are we to understand the word “now” in I Corinthians 13:13?
Are they to be understood as referring to different periods?
ANSWER: I believe the context demands different understandings of the usage
of the word “now” in the two subject verses. “Now” in verse 12 (in contradistinction to “then”) has to refer to that period of time when Paul wrote,
before the completed Word of God. “Now” in verse 13 must be taken to mean “in
this present life.” The word “abideth” means “remains” and stands in
contradistinction to that which is passing away. Therefore, the word “now” (verse
13) would include the “now” time of verse 12, as well as all future time! In other
words, faith, hope, and love, were to be prevalent in the life of Christians during
that time and would be all that “remained” for all future time in light of the fact that
the other items mentioned were to cease!
Monday, May 9, 2011
QUESTION: If you are a Christian, but cannot speak in tongues, what can you do about it?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If you are a Christian, but cannot speak in tongues, what can
you do about it?
ANSWER: Speaking in tongues as happened in the first century is not the same
as the gibberish that people in error engage in today! In the Bible we learn that to
speak in tongues was simply to be able (without formal education) to speak a
foreign language that already existed (Acts 2:1-11). This is not being done today,
nor can it be!
The purpose of miracles and signs in Bible times was to confirm the Word of God
(Mark 16:20) that was being spoken, but not yet written. When the Word of God
(the perfect law of liberty – James 1:25) was completed, the “gifts” were to fail,
cease, and vanish away (I Corinthians 13:8-13). Since the perfect Word of God
was confirmed and written about the end of the first century, it follows that at that
time the miraculous, including speaking in tongues, passed away according to
the will of God. Since we today have the same completed and confirmed Bible,
which provides “all things that pertain to life and godliness” (II Peter 1:3), there is
clearly no need for the “gifts” today. The faithful child of God will not be involved
with such matters!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If you are a Christian, but cannot speak in tongues, what can
you do about it?
ANSWER: Speaking in tongues as happened in the first century is not the same
as the gibberish that people in error engage in today! In the Bible we learn that to
speak in tongues was simply to be able (without formal education) to speak a
foreign language that already existed (Acts 2:1-11). This is not being done today,
nor can it be!
The purpose of miracles and signs in Bible times was to confirm the Word of God
(Mark 16:20) that was being spoken, but not yet written. When the Word of God
(the perfect law of liberty – James 1:25) was completed, the “gifts” were to fail,
cease, and vanish away (I Corinthians 13:8-13). Since the perfect Word of God
was confirmed and written about the end of the first century, it follows that at that
time the miraculous, including speaking in tongues, passed away according to
the will of God. Since we today have the same completed and confirmed Bible,
which provides “all things that pertain to life and godliness” (II Peter 1:3), there is
clearly no need for the “gifts” today. The faithful child of God will not be involved
with such matters!
Sunday, May 8, 2011
QUESTION: Please explain I Corinthians 13:10 as to what the “perfect” is. Basically we teach that it is the complete Word of God as opposed to Ephesians 4:13: “unto a perfect man.” Is this correct?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Please explain I Corinthians 13:10 as to what the “perfect” is.
Basically we teach that it is the complete Word of God as opposed to
Ephesians 4:13: “unto a perfect man.” Is this correct?
ANSWER: Both passages are teaching the same truth! The “perfect man” of
Ephesians means a “mature/complete man” as contrasted with a child (an
immature person) and has reference to the mature church, but note how that
maturity is attained: “through the knowledge of the Son of God.” The knowledge
necessary for maturity could only come through the completed/mature Word of
God! The perfect of I Corinthians 13:10 also means “complete or mature,” but
refers directly to that which is able to make the church (Christians) mature (I
Corinthians 13:11-12), i.e., the Word of God. Clearly, the New Testament was not given in its totality on the day of Pentecost,
but rather it was given and written over a period of years during the first century.
Once it was completed, it became the perfect (complete) law of liberty (James
1:25) and being confirmed and written, the need for gifts (confirmation of the
word) no longer existed! The word “perfect” in the subject passages does not
denote “sinlessness” or “without fault.” It simply, as already indicated, means
“complete” or “mature.” In I Corinthians thirteen, verses eight through eleven,
this word (perfect/complete) is contrasted with that which is in “part;” that which is
to be done away. What was it that was known in part (vs.9)? When would the
part be done away (vs.10)? According to verse ten, the part would be done away
when the complete (perfect) was come! With the coming of the “complete” law of
liberty, the church would no longer have to know in part, because it would now
have all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him
who hath called us to glory and virtue (II Peter 1:3), through “all” scripture which
alone can make the man of God “complete, furnished unto every good work” (II
Timothy 3:16-17).
Both passages teach that when the perfect/mature/complete would become
attainable through the perfect/mature/complete Word of God, then the gifts would
pass away!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Please explain I Corinthians 13:10 as to what the “perfect” is.
Basically we teach that it is the complete Word of God as opposed to
Ephesians 4:13: “unto a perfect man.” Is this correct?
ANSWER: Both passages are teaching the same truth! The “perfect man” of
Ephesians means a “mature/complete man” as contrasted with a child (an
immature person) and has reference to the mature church, but note how that
maturity is attained: “through the knowledge of the Son of God.” The knowledge
necessary for maturity could only come through the completed/mature Word of
God! The perfect of I Corinthians 13:10 also means “complete or mature,” but
refers directly to that which is able to make the church (Christians) mature (I
Corinthians 13:11-12), i.e., the Word of God. Clearly, the New Testament was not given in its totality on the day of Pentecost,
but rather it was given and written over a period of years during the first century.
Once it was completed, it became the perfect (complete) law of liberty (James
1:25) and being confirmed and written, the need for gifts (confirmation of the
word) no longer existed! The word “perfect” in the subject passages does not
denote “sinlessness” or “without fault.” It simply, as already indicated, means
“complete” or “mature.” In I Corinthians thirteen, verses eight through eleven,
this word (perfect/complete) is contrasted with that which is in “part;” that which is
to be done away. What was it that was known in part (vs.9)? When would the
part be done away (vs.10)? According to verse ten, the part would be done away
when the complete (perfect) was come! With the coming of the “complete” law of
liberty, the church would no longer have to know in part, because it would now
have all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him
who hath called us to glory and virtue (II Peter 1:3), through “all” scripture which
alone can make the man of God “complete, furnished unto every good work” (II
Timothy 3:16-17).
Both passages teach that when the perfect/mature/complete would become
attainable through the perfect/mature/complete Word of God, then the gifts would
pass away!
Saturday, May 7, 2011
QUESTION: In John 16:12-13, is Jesus telling only His disciples that they will be guided into all truth by the Spirit of truth or is He saying that He will guide people today into all truth?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: In John 16:12-13, is Jesus telling only His disciples that they
will be guided into all truth by the Spirit of truth or is He saying that He will
guide people today into all truth?
ANSWER: This promise was only for His disciples; those to whom He spoke on
this occasion! He sent them the Holy Spirit as He promised on the day of
Pentecost and as recorded in the second chapter of Acts! The writers of the New
Testament, being inspired by the Holy Spirit (II Timothy 3:16), were guided into
“all truth” (John 16:13) and given “all things that pertain unto life and godliness”
(II Peter 1:3). Since we have the completed New Testament today, it follows that
we, too, have “all truth” and, therefore, “all things that pertain unto life and
godliness.” This being true, what need would there be of direct Holy Spirit
guidance today? What additional truths could He give us, if we already have “all”
of it? Obviously none! There is, therefore, no need of further direct guidance
today! All of the guidance and truth that people need today is to be found
“indirectly” in God’s Word! This is why each is commanded to “study” (II Timothy
2:15). Certainly, if it were the case that individuals were directly guided into “all
truth” by the Holy Spirit today, there would be no need for study, bibles,
preaching, preachers, or missionary work of any kind!
Those who claim the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit today are always those
who propose religious doctrines and activities foreign to, and outside of, God’s
Word! From such sinful foolishness comes the God-opposing and self-opposing
denominational system of religion that has filled the world today! Most of its
groups are claiming to be directed by the Holy Spirit and yet they contradict; they
fight and war against each other. Can any sensibly believe that the Holy Spirit is
so divided? Since Christ prayed that His followers would all be one (John 17:21-
23), can any sensibly blame the Holy Spirit of Christ for the religious division
among these today? Surely not!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: In John 16:12-13, is Jesus telling only His disciples that they
will be guided into all truth by the Spirit of truth or is He saying that He will
guide people today into all truth?
ANSWER: This promise was only for His disciples; those to whom He spoke on
this occasion! He sent them the Holy Spirit as He promised on the day of
Pentecost and as recorded in the second chapter of Acts! The writers of the New
Testament, being inspired by the Holy Spirit (II Timothy 3:16), were guided into
“all truth” (John 16:13) and given “all things that pertain unto life and godliness”
(II Peter 1:3). Since we have the completed New Testament today, it follows that
we, too, have “all truth” and, therefore, “all things that pertain unto life and
godliness.” This being true, what need would there be of direct Holy Spirit
guidance today? What additional truths could He give us, if we already have “all”
of it? Obviously none! There is, therefore, no need of further direct guidance
today! All of the guidance and truth that people need today is to be found
“indirectly” in God’s Word! This is why each is commanded to “study” (II Timothy
2:15). Certainly, if it were the case that individuals were directly guided into “all
truth” by the Holy Spirit today, there would be no need for study, bibles,
preaching, preachers, or missionary work of any kind!
Those who claim the direct guidance of the Holy Spirit today are always those
who propose religious doctrines and activities foreign to, and outside of, God’s
Word! From such sinful foolishness comes the God-opposing and self-opposing
denominational system of religion that has filled the world today! Most of its
groups are claiming to be directed by the Holy Spirit and yet they contradict; they
fight and war against each other. Can any sensibly believe that the Holy Spirit is
so divided? Since Christ prayed that His followers would all be one (John 17:21-
23), can any sensibly blame the Holy Spirit of Christ for the religious division
among these today? Surely not!
Friday, May 6, 2011
QUESTION: If some have the power to heal today, why don’t they heal those in the hospitals?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If some have the power to heal today, why don’t they heal
those in the hospitals?
ANSWER: Your question is quite logical! The fact that they do not heal those in
the hospitals is proof that they cannot heal anywhere or under any condition!
Some of these “fake healers” also claim to raise the dead, but none of them are even seen near a graveyard, unless it is to bury someone they previously failed
to heal! They are not of God!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If some have the power to heal today, why don’t they heal
those in the hospitals?
ANSWER: Your question is quite logical! The fact that they do not heal those in
the hospitals is proof that they cannot heal anywhere or under any condition!
Some of these “fake healers” also claim to raise the dead, but none of them are even seen near a graveyard, unless it is to bury someone they previously failed
to heal! They are not of God!
Thursday, May 5, 2011
Today's hUMOR
How to Identify Where a Driver is From
1. One hand on wheel, one hand on horn: Chicago.
2. One hand on wheel, one finger out window: New York.
3. One hand on wheel, one finger out window, cutting across
all lanes of traffic: New Jersey.
4. One hand on wheel, one hand on newspaper, foot solidly on
accelerator: Boston.
5. One hand on wheel, one hand on nonfat double decaf
cappuccino, cradling cell phone, brick on accelerator, with
gun in lap: Los Angeles.
6. Both hands on wheel, eyes shut, both feet on brake,
quivering in terror: Ohio, but driving in California.
7. Both hands in air, gesturing, both feet on accelerator,
head turned to talk to someone in back seat: Italy.
8. One hand on latte, one knee on wheel, cradling cell
phone, foot on brake, mind on radio game: Seattle.
9. One hand on wheel, one hand on hunting rifle, alternating
between both feet being on the accelerator and both feet on
brake, throwing McDonald's bag out the window: Texas.
10. Four-wheel drive pick-up truck, shotgun mounted in rear
window, beer cans on floor, squirrel tails attached to
antenna: West Virginia.
11. Two hands gripping wheel, blue hair barely visible above
windshield, driving 35 on the Interstate in the left lane
with the left blinker on: Florida.
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
Burnt Potato
Laura and Freddy are cousins, and their grandmother is babysitting
them for the day.
Although Freddy's mom is the renowned chef in the family, Laura's mom
prepared lunch earlier, including potatoes in the oven. But one fell
and got badly burnt, almost like a piece of charcoal. Grandma jumped
on the occasion to show the kids how to draw with it on a piece of paper.
Feeling sad, Freddy observed: "My mom would NEVER burn potatoes for me!"
Burnt Potato
Laura and Freddy are cousins, and their grandmother is babysitting
them for the day.
Although Freddy's mom is the renowned chef in the family, Laura's mom
prepared lunch earlier, including potatoes in the oven. But one fell
and got badly burnt, almost like a piece of charcoal. Grandma jumped
on the occasion to show the kids how to draw with it on a piece of paper.
Feeling sad, Freddy observed: "My mom would NEVER burn potatoes for me!"
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
A very successful businessman had a meeting with his new son-in-law.
“I welcome you into the family,” said the man. “To show you how much we care for you, I am making you a 50-50 partner in my business. All you have to do is go to the factory everyday and learn the operation.”
The son-in-law interrupted. “I hate factories. I can’t stand the noise.” ...
Read the rest of this clean joke of the day
1. One hand on wheel, one hand on horn: Chicago.
2. One hand on wheel, one finger out window: New York.
3. One hand on wheel, one finger out window, cutting across
all lanes of traffic: New Jersey.
4. One hand on wheel, one hand on newspaper, foot solidly on
accelerator: Boston.
5. One hand on wheel, one hand on nonfat double decaf
cappuccino, cradling cell phone, brick on accelerator, with
gun in lap: Los Angeles.
6. Both hands on wheel, eyes shut, both feet on brake,
quivering in terror: Ohio, but driving in California.
7. Both hands in air, gesturing, both feet on accelerator,
head turned to talk to someone in back seat: Italy.
8. One hand on latte, one knee on wheel, cradling cell
phone, foot on brake, mind on radio game: Seattle.
9. One hand on wheel, one hand on hunting rifle, alternating
between both feet being on the accelerator and both feet on
brake, throwing McDonald's bag out the window: Texas.
10. Four-wheel drive pick-up truck, shotgun mounted in rear
window, beer cans on floor, squirrel tails attached to
antenna: West Virginia.
11. Two hands gripping wheel, blue hair barely visible above
windshield, driving 35 on the Interstate in the left lane
with the left blinker on: Florida.
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
Burnt Potato
Laura and Freddy are cousins, and their grandmother is babysitting
them for the day.
Although Freddy's mom is the renowned chef in the family, Laura's mom
prepared lunch earlier, including potatoes in the oven. But one fell
and got badly burnt, almost like a piece of charcoal. Grandma jumped
on the occasion to show the kids how to draw with it on a piece of paper.
Feeling sad, Freddy observed: "My mom would NEVER burn potatoes for me!"
Burnt Potato
Laura and Freddy are cousins, and their grandmother is babysitting
them for the day.
Although Freddy's mom is the renowned chef in the family, Laura's mom
prepared lunch earlier, including potatoes in the oven. But one fell
and got badly burnt, almost like a piece of charcoal. Grandma jumped
on the occasion to show the kids how to draw with it on a piece of paper.
Feeling sad, Freddy observed: "My mom would NEVER burn potatoes for me!"
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
A very successful businessman had a meeting with his new son-in-law.
“I welcome you into the family,” said the man. “To show you how much we care for you, I am making you a 50-50 partner in my business. All you have to do is go to the factory everyday and learn the operation.”
The son-in-law interrupted. “I hate factories. I can’t stand the noise.” ...
Read the rest of this clean joke of the day
QUESTION: Jesus, according to Matthew 4:23-24 and other passages, healed people with various diseases. Do pastors, evangelists, and bishops have this same power today?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Jesus, according to Matthew 4:23-24 and other passages,
healed people with various diseases. Do pastors, evangelists, and bishops
have this same power today?
ANSWER: No! The sole reason for the gifts of the Spirit, which included
healings, was to confirm the Word being taught (John 20:30-31). Once all
scripture was given by inspiration of God, confirmed and written, the need for
gifts then passed away! Such was the will of God (Ephesians 4:7-14; I
Corinthians 13:8-13). Men who claim to have the “gifts” today are false teachers
and need to be avoided!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: Jesus, according to Matthew 4:23-24 and other passages,
healed people with various diseases. Do pastors, evangelists, and bishops
have this same power today?
ANSWER: No! The sole reason for the gifts of the Spirit, which included
healings, was to confirm the Word being taught (John 20:30-31). Once all
scripture was given by inspiration of God, confirmed and written, the need for
gifts then passed away! Such was the will of God (Ephesians 4:7-14; I
Corinthians 13:8-13). Men who claim to have the “gifts” today are false teachers
and need to be avoided!
Wednesday, May 4, 2011
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If heaven is a place of no pain, no tears, how can the Holy
Spirit of God be grieved (Ephesians 4:30)?
ANSWER: Many times in trying to understand the Bible, we often try to see
spiritual things in the light of physical things. When we do so, generally, it leads
to misunderstanding. Revelation 21:4 says, “And God shall wipe away all tears
from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying,
neither shall there be anymore pain: for the former things are passed away.” In
the context of this chapter, we understand that this earth with all of its physical
burdens will pass away, because there is being prepared for the faithful child of
God a new dwelling place; a spiritual place for spiritual bodies, into which, flesh
and blood cannot enter (I Corinthians 15:50). The Holy Spirit, not being of flesh
and blood, does not endure physical things as you and I! Neither does He suffer
grief as you and I! Ephesians 4:30 simply commands us not to engage in any
grief-causing physical conduct, which could possibly result in the separation of
our spirit from His Spirit!
It is good to know that when physical things have passed away and are replaced
by spiritual things, i.e., when the former things have passed away, sin too will
have passed away (Revelation 21:27). When this occurs there will be no grief of
any kind, because there will be nothing over which to grieve!
STATEMENT: If the Lord calls people today, then the gifts of the Holy Spirit are
still given (Acts 2:39).
RESPONSE: This is an assumption that ignores the totality of what God has
spoken on the matter! We cannot know the truth on a particular subject until we
study and digest all of the relative scriptures. God calls people today through His
Holy Spirit-given Word (II Thessalonians 2:14). Blessings by the Holy Spirit were,
and are, given only within the parameters or boundaries prescribed by that Word.
From answers to preceding questions, it has been clearly shown that the
parameters of God’s Word restricted the use of spiritual gifts (by selected
Christians) to a specific time, for a specific purpose.
The assumption made in this “Statement” would, when taken to a logical
conclusion, demand that every Christian, from the first century until the end of
time, be endowed with all of the spiritual gifts. Clearly, from I Corinthians 12, 13,
& 14 (written to solve problems with the gifts during the time when they were in
use), Acts 8:5-24, and Romans 1:11, we can understand that not all Christians,
even in the first century, were endowed with gifts; that only certain Christians
possessed certain gifts for a certain time and for a certain purpose!
STATEMENT: If the gifts have passed away, there is no salvation, since we are
born of water and the Spirit (John 3:5).
RESPONSE: Again, this passage does not remotely address the issue of
miraculous gifts. One is not free to assume that wherever the word “Spirit”
appears that Holy Spirit baptism and/or gifts is/are being discussed! The “water”
referred to in this passage simply relates to our baptism (immersion) in water for
the remission of sins. The word “Spirit” tells us by whose direction we are to be
baptized in water. In I Corinthians 12:13, we have similar language, “For by one
Spirit (that is, through the agency or direction of the Spirit) are we all baptized (in
water) into one body.” Indeed, one is saved when he or she is born anew of
water and the Spirit!
All must be extremely careful not to read more into a passage than is
appropriate. This would be adding to God’s Word (Revelation 22:18-19).
STATEMENT: Ananias was not an apostle, but he laid hands on Paul and he
received the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17).
RESPONSE: This, as well, reads more into scripture than was intended. Acts
9:12 states explicitly why Ananias was to lay hands on Paul: “that he might
receive his sight.” Nothing more, nothing less! Paul was chosen to be an apostle
of our Lord. His becoming an apostle would require baptism in the Holy Spirit,
which could only be performed by Christ (Matthew 3:11). Ananias did not have
the power to do what our Lord could do! However, his coming to Paul would soon
lead to Paul’s baptism in the Holy Spirit. Further, had Paul chosen to reject
Ananias, he would also have rejected Christ and the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
This is the sense of the passage in question!
STATEMENT: God still calls people today, as He called Ananias.
RESPONSE: The Bible does not tell us when Ananias was called. In Acts 9:10,
we learn that he was already a disciple (Christian) when the Lord appeared to
him in a vision. If the “Statement” is intended to imply that we today are “called”
by the appearance of the Lord in a vision, it would be in contradiction to II
Thessalonians 2:14, “Wherefore He called you by His Gospel, to the obtaining of
the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.” This is the only way men are called, whether
to be Christians or to preach the Word!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: If heaven is a place of no pain, no tears, how can the Holy
Spirit of God be grieved (Ephesians 4:30)?
ANSWER: Many times in trying to understand the Bible, we often try to see
spiritual things in the light of physical things. When we do so, generally, it leads
to misunderstanding. Revelation 21:4 says, “And God shall wipe away all tears
from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying,
neither shall there be anymore pain: for the former things are passed away.” In
the context of this chapter, we understand that this earth with all of its physical
burdens will pass away, because there is being prepared for the faithful child of
God a new dwelling place; a spiritual place for spiritual bodies, into which, flesh
and blood cannot enter (I Corinthians 15:50). The Holy Spirit, not being of flesh
and blood, does not endure physical things as you and I! Neither does He suffer
grief as you and I! Ephesians 4:30 simply commands us not to engage in any
grief-causing physical conduct, which could possibly result in the separation of
our spirit from His Spirit!
It is good to know that when physical things have passed away and are replaced
by spiritual things, i.e., when the former things have passed away, sin too will
have passed away (Revelation 21:27). When this occurs there will be no grief of
any kind, because there will be nothing over which to grieve!
STATEMENT: If the Lord calls people today, then the gifts of the Holy Spirit are
still given (Acts 2:39).
RESPONSE: This is an assumption that ignores the totality of what God has
spoken on the matter! We cannot know the truth on a particular subject until we
study and digest all of the relative scriptures. God calls people today through His
Holy Spirit-given Word (II Thessalonians 2:14). Blessings by the Holy Spirit were,
and are, given only within the parameters or boundaries prescribed by that Word.
From answers to preceding questions, it has been clearly shown that the
parameters of God’s Word restricted the use of spiritual gifts (by selected
Christians) to a specific time, for a specific purpose.
The assumption made in this “Statement” would, when taken to a logical
conclusion, demand that every Christian, from the first century until the end of
time, be endowed with all of the spiritual gifts. Clearly, from I Corinthians 12, 13,
& 14 (written to solve problems with the gifts during the time when they were in
use), Acts 8:5-24, and Romans 1:11, we can understand that not all Christians,
even in the first century, were endowed with gifts; that only certain Christians
possessed certain gifts for a certain time and for a certain purpose!
STATEMENT: If the gifts have passed away, there is no salvation, since we are
born of water and the Spirit (John 3:5).
RESPONSE: Again, this passage does not remotely address the issue of
miraculous gifts. One is not free to assume that wherever the word “Spirit”
appears that Holy Spirit baptism and/or gifts is/are being discussed! The “water”
referred to in this passage simply relates to our baptism (immersion) in water for
the remission of sins. The word “Spirit” tells us by whose direction we are to be
baptized in water. In I Corinthians 12:13, we have similar language, “For by one
Spirit (that is, through the agency or direction of the Spirit) are we all baptized (in
water) into one body.” Indeed, one is saved when he or she is born anew of
water and the Spirit!
All must be extremely careful not to read more into a passage than is
appropriate. This would be adding to God’s Word (Revelation 22:18-19).
STATEMENT: Ananias was not an apostle, but he laid hands on Paul and he
received the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17).
RESPONSE: This, as well, reads more into scripture than was intended. Acts
9:12 states explicitly why Ananias was to lay hands on Paul: “that he might
receive his sight.” Nothing more, nothing less! Paul was chosen to be an apostle
of our Lord. His becoming an apostle would require baptism in the Holy Spirit,
which could only be performed by Christ (Matthew 3:11). Ananias did not have
the power to do what our Lord could do! However, his coming to Paul would soon
lead to Paul’s baptism in the Holy Spirit. Further, had Paul chosen to reject
Ananias, he would also have rejected Christ and the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
This is the sense of the passage in question!
STATEMENT: God still calls people today, as He called Ananias.
RESPONSE: The Bible does not tell us when Ananias was called. In Acts 9:10,
we learn that he was already a disciple (Christian) when the Lord appeared to
him in a vision. If the “Statement” is intended to imply that we today are “called”
by the appearance of the Lord in a vision, it would be in contradiction to II
Thessalonians 2:14, “Wherefore He called you by His Gospel, to the obtaining of
the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.” This is the only way men are called, whether
to be Christians or to preach the Word!
Tuesday, May 3, 2011
QUESTION: How is the fruit of the Spirit produced in our lives today (Galatians 5:22-25)?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How is the fruit of the Spirit produced in our lives today
(Galatians 5:22-25)?
ANSWER: In Ephesians 5:9, we read, “For the fruit of the Spirit is in all
goodness, righteousness, and truth.” This verse is telling us what the result will
be if we “walk as children of light,” as commanded in the preceding verse eight!
These two verses combined, then, teach that the Holy Spirit produces fruit (as
described in Galatians 5:22-23) through the lives of those who walk as children of
light (faithful Christians) according to the truth (the gospel).
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How is the fruit of the Spirit produced in our lives today
(Galatians 5:22-25)?
ANSWER: In Ephesians 5:9, we read, “For the fruit of the Spirit is in all
goodness, righteousness, and truth.” This verse is telling us what the result will
be if we “walk as children of light,” as commanded in the preceding verse eight!
These two verses combined, then, teach that the Holy Spirit produces fruit (as
described in Galatians 5:22-23) through the lives of those who walk as children of
light (faithful Christians) according to the truth (the gospel).
Monday, May 2, 2011
Bible Questions & Answers If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address. When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog. I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days. Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches. ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ QUESTION: How does the Holy Spirit convict men of sin as John 16:8-13 says? ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that “by the law is the knowledge of sin.” Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a knowledge of His Word!
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How does the Holy Spirit convict men of sin as John 16:8-13
says?
ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that “by the law is the knowledge of sin.”
Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a
knowledge of His Word!
ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that “by the law is the knowledge of sin.”
Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a
knowledge of His Word!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: How does the Holy Spirit convict men of sin as John 16:8-13
says?
ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that “by the law is the knowledge of sin.”
Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a
knowledge of His Word!
ANSWER: Romans 3:20 tells us that “by the law is the knowledge of sin.”
Therefore, we are convicted of sin by the Holy Spirit when we come to a
knowledge of His Word!
Sunday, May 1, 2011
QUESTION: What is the difference in being baptized with the Spirit and being filled with the Spirit?
Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What is the difference in being baptized with the Spirit and
being filled with the Spirit?
ANSWER: Being filled with the Spirit is discussed in the answer to the preceding
question. “Baptism of the Holy Spirit” is very different from “being filled with the
Spirit,” just as there is a great difference in the meaning of the two words
“baptism” (immersion) and “filling.” Consider the action one would take if he were
to “immerse” a cup for cleansing. Then consider the action if he were to “fill” a
cup for drinking. The actions and purposes are totally different!
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QUESTION: What is the difference in being baptized with the Spirit and
being filled with the Spirit?
ANSWER: Being filled with the Spirit is discussed in the answer to the preceding
question. “Baptism of the Holy Spirit” is very different from “being filled with the
Spirit,” just as there is a great difference in the meaning of the two words
“baptism” (immersion) and “filling.” Consider the action one would take if he were
to “immerse” a cup for cleansing. Then consider the action if he were to “fill” a
cup for drinking. The actions and purposes are totally different!
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