Bible Questions & Answers
If you have a specific question you would like to ask, send it to Dan Allen jd03325@gmail.com You must give your name and e-mail address.
When I answer your question I will not show your name or e-mail address when I post your question to this blog.
I will make every effort to answer your questions within 3 days.
Each answered question will include a Scripture reference for the question. I urge you to read all scriptures from your Bible accepting only what the Bible teaches.
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QUESTION: If heaven is a place of no pain, no tears, how can the Holy
Spirit of God be grieved (Ephesians 4:30)?
ANSWER: Many times in trying to understand the Bible, we often try to see
spiritual things in the light of physical things. When we do so, generally, it leads
to misunderstanding. Revelation 21:4 says, “And God shall wipe away all tears
from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying,
neither shall there be anymore pain: for the former things are passed away.” In
the context of this chapter, we understand that this earth with all of its physical
burdens will pass away, because there is being prepared for the faithful child of
God a new dwelling place; a spiritual place for spiritual bodies, into which, flesh
and blood cannot enter (I Corinthians 15:50). The Holy Spirit, not being of flesh
and blood, does not endure physical things as you and I! Neither does He suffer
grief as you and I! Ephesians 4:30 simply commands us not to engage in any
grief-causing physical conduct, which could possibly result in the separation of
our spirit from His Spirit!
It is good to know that when physical things have passed away and are replaced
by spiritual things, i.e., when the former things have passed away, sin too will
have passed away (Revelation 21:27). When this occurs there will be no grief of
any kind, because there will be nothing over which to grieve!
STATEMENT: If the Lord calls people today, then the gifts of the Holy Spirit are
still given (Acts 2:39).
RESPONSE: This is an assumption that ignores the totality of what God has
spoken on the matter! We cannot know the truth on a particular subject until we
study and digest all of the relative scriptures. God calls people today through His
Holy Spirit-given Word (II Thessalonians 2:14). Blessings by the Holy Spirit were,
and are, given only within the parameters or boundaries prescribed by that Word.
From answers to preceding questions, it has been clearly shown that the
parameters of God’s Word restricted the use of spiritual gifts (by selected
Christians) to a specific time, for a specific purpose.
The assumption made in this “Statement” would, when taken to a logical
conclusion, demand that every Christian, from the first century until the end of
time, be endowed with all of the spiritual gifts. Clearly, from I Corinthians 12, 13,
& 14 (written to solve problems with the gifts during the time when they were in
use), Acts 8:5-24, and Romans 1:11, we can understand that not all Christians,
even in the first century, were endowed with gifts; that only certain Christians
possessed certain gifts for a certain time and for a certain purpose!
STATEMENT: If the gifts have passed away, there is no salvation, since we are
born of water and the Spirit (John 3:5).
RESPONSE: Again, this passage does not remotely address the issue of
miraculous gifts. One is not free to assume that wherever the word “Spirit”
appears that Holy Spirit baptism and/or gifts is/are being discussed! The “water”
referred to in this passage simply relates to our baptism (immersion) in water for
the remission of sins. The word “Spirit” tells us by whose direction we are to be
baptized in water. In I Corinthians 12:13, we have similar language, “For by one
Spirit (that is, through the agency or direction of the Spirit) are we all baptized (in
water) into one body.” Indeed, one is saved when he or she is born anew of
water and the Spirit!
All must be extremely careful not to read more into a passage than is
appropriate. This would be adding to God’s Word (Revelation 22:18-19).
STATEMENT: Ananias was not an apostle, but he laid hands on Paul and he
received the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17).
RESPONSE: This, as well, reads more into scripture than was intended. Acts
9:12 states explicitly why Ananias was to lay hands on Paul: “that he might
receive his sight.” Nothing more, nothing less! Paul was chosen to be an apostle
of our Lord. His becoming an apostle would require baptism in the Holy Spirit,
which could only be performed by Christ (Matthew 3:11). Ananias did not have
the power to do what our Lord could do! However, his coming to Paul would soon
lead to Paul’s baptism in the Holy Spirit. Further, had Paul chosen to reject
Ananias, he would also have rejected Christ and the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
This is the sense of the passage in question!
STATEMENT: God still calls people today, as He called Ananias.
RESPONSE: The Bible does not tell us when Ananias was called. In Acts 9:10,
we learn that he was already a disciple (Christian) when the Lord appeared to
him in a vision. If the “Statement” is intended to imply that we today are “called”
by the appearance of the Lord in a vision, it would be in contradiction to II
Thessalonians 2:14, “Wherefore He called you by His Gospel, to the obtaining of
the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.” This is the only way men are called, whether
to be Christians or to preach the Word!
